Arihant DC Pandey PhysicsClass 11. We covered all the Arihant DC Pandey PhysicsClass 11mcqs in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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Which one of the following statements regarding lenses is not correct?
(a) A convex lens produces both real and virtual images.
(b) A concave lens produces both real and virtual images.
(c) A convex lens can produce images equal, greater, and smaller than the size of the object.
(d) A concave lens always produces images smaller than the size of the object.
Explanation: A lens behaves differently depending on its shape, material, and how it interacts with Light rays. Convex lenses can converge or diverge Light under specific conditions and may form real or virtual images depending on object position. Concave lenses, however, generally cause divergence of Light rays and typically produce only virtual, upright, and diminished images. The question tests understanding of how different lenses form images under various conditions and whether they can produce multiple types of images or have fixed image characteristics. A careful analysis of image formation rules for convex and concave lenses helps distinguish correct and incorrect statements about their optical behavior.
Option b – A concave lens produces both real and virtual images
A lens, immersed in a liquid becomes invisible when ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) the focal length of the lens is zero
(b) the focal length of the lens is finite
(c) the refractive index of the lens is less than the refractive index of the liquid
(d) the refractive index of the lens is equal to the refractive index of the liquid.
Explanation: The visibility of a lens depends on the difference in refractive indices between the lens material and the surrounding medium. Light bends when it passes between two media with different refractive indices, making the lens visible due to refraction at its surfaces. When a lens is placed in a liquid having a refractive index equal or nearly equal to that of the lens, Light passes through without significant bending. As a result, there is no noticeable refraction or reflection at the boundaries, making the lens effectively invisible. This phenomenon is directly linked to optical principles involving refractive index matching and reduced Light deviation.
Option d – the refractive index of the lens is equal to the refractive index of the liquid
In a magnifying glass ……… lens is used.
(a) Convex
(b) Concave
(c) Plano concave
(d) Plano convex
Explanation: A magnifying glass is an optical instrument designed to produce a larger image of small objects when viewed closely. It works by using a lens that converges Light rays so that they appear to come from a larger image than the actual object. When the object is placed within the focal length of this lens, the rays diverge after refraction, and the eye traces them back to form a virtual, erect, and enlarged image. This optical behavior depends on how the lens bends Light and creates an image that appears bigger due to angular magnification. The effectiveness of magnification is influenced by focal length and the position of the object relative to the lens.
Option a – Convex
Two glass lenses of the same focal length, one being convex and the other concave, are kept in contact, the combination will act as ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) convergent lens
(b) divergent lens
(c) plane glass sheet
(d) mirror
Explanation: When two lenses are placed in contact, their combined optical effect depends on their individual powers. A convex lens has positive power while a concave lens has negative power. If both lenses have equal focal lengths but opposite nature, their powers cancel each other out when added algebraically. This results in zero NET optical power, meaning the combination does not converge or diverge Light. As a result, the system behaves like a plane glass sheet, allowing Light rays to pass through without NET deviation. The concept relies on lens power addition and understanding how opposite focal properties neutralize each other in optical systems.
Option c – plane glass sheet
An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summer is based on the principle of
(a) reflection
(b) interference
(c) dispersion
(d) total internal reflection
Explanation: Optical illusions seen in deserts, often called mirages, occur due to the bending of light rays as they travel through layers of air at different temperatures. Hot air near the ground is less dense and has a lower refractive index compared to cooler air above. This creates a gradual change in refractive index, causing light rays from the sky or distant objects to bend upward toward the observer. The brain interprets these rays as coming from the ground, creating the illusion of water or reflective surfaces. This phenomenon is a direct result of continuous refraction in a non-uniform medium and depends heavily on temperature gradients in air.
Option d – total internal reflection
Which one of the following processes is responsible for the glittering of an air bubble rising through water? ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) Reflection of light
(b) Refraction of light
(c) Total internal reflection of light
(d) Scattering of light
Explanation: An air bubble rising through water appears to glitter due to the bending and internal reflection of light at the boundary between water and air. As light enters the bubble, it undergoes refraction because of the difference in refractive indices of water and air. Some of this light reflects internally within the curved surface of the bubble before emerging. This repeated bending and reflection creates bright and dark regions that appear to shimmer or glitter to an observer. The effect depends on the angle of incidence, curvature of the bubble, and optical density difference between the two media.
Option c – Total internal reflection of light
Which of the following is not an example of the refraction of light?
(a) Twinkling effect of stars
(b) Mirages
(c) Lateral inversion
(d) Bending of light while passing through a medium
Explanation: Refraction is the bending of light when it passes from one medium to another due to a change in its speed. Many natural and optical phenomena such as bending of light in water or Atmosphere are caused by refraction. However, some optical effects are not due to refraction but arise from different wave or geometric properties of light. For example, phenomena involving straight-line propagation or image reversal due to reflection do not involve bending across media boundaries. Understanding the distinction between reflection, refraction, Diffraction, and dispersion is essential to correctly classify optical phenomena.
Option c – Lateral inversion
A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears to be larger than its actual size. This is because of ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) the reflection of light.
(b) scattering of light.
(c) refraction of light
(d) polarization of light.
Explanation: When an object is placed in water, light rays coming from it bend as they move from water to air due to a change in refractive index. This bending of light causes the object to appear shifted from its actual position and often magnified when viewed through curved or liquid surfaces. The brain traces the refracted rays backward in straight lines, leading to an apparent increase in size. This optical effect depends on refraction at the interface and is influenced by the curvature of the container and the difference in optical densities of water and air.
Option c – refraction of light
Why does a water tank appear shallower when viewed from the top?
Explanation: A water tank appears shallower due to the refraction of light at the water-air boundary. Light rays coming from the bottom of the tank bend away from the normal as they move from water into air. The eye traces these refracted rays in straight lines, forming a virtual image of the bottom at a higher position than its actual depth. This creates an illusion that the tank is less deep than it really is. The effect depends on the refractive index of water and the viewing angle. It is a common example of apparent depth caused by optical refraction.
Option b – Due to refraction
The twinkling of stars is due to ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) the large distance of stars and storms in the air.
(d) the large distance of stars and fluctuations in the density of air.
Explanation: Twinkling of stars is caused by the continuous refraction of starlight as it passes through layers of Earth’s Atmosphere with varying density. These atmospheric layers have fluctuating temperatures and densities, leading to changes in refractive index. As light from distant stars travels through these layers, it bends irregularly, causing the apparent brightness and position of the star to fluctuate. Since stars are extremely distant point sources, even small atmospheric variations significantly affect their observed light intensity. This atmospheric refraction leads to the flickering or twinkling effect seen from Earth.
Option d – the large distance of stars and fluctuations in the density of air
Due to atmospheric refraction, sunrise is advanced, and sunset is delayed by about
(a) 1 minute
(b) 2 minutes
(c) 4 minutes
(d) 3 minutes
Explanation: Atmospheric refraction bends light from the Sun as it passes through Earth’s Atmosphere, which has layers of varying density. This bending causes the Sun to appear slightly above its actual geometric position. As a result, the Sun becomes visible before it physically rises above the horizon and remains visible after it has SET below it. This effect effectively extends the duration of daylight. The magnitude of this time shift depends on atmospheric conditions but is generally a few minutes. It is a direct consequence of light bending through non-uniform air layers.
Option b – 2 minutes
The Sun is seen a little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) total internal reflection
(b) atmospheric refraction
(c) apparent shift in the direction of the Sun
(d) dispersion
Explanation: The apparent early sunrise and delayed sunset occur due to atmospheric refraction of sunlight. As sunlight enters Earth’s Atmosphere, it travels through layers of gradually changing density, causing it to bend toward the normal. This bending allows the Sun’s image to reach the observer even when it is geometrically below the horizon. Consequently, the Sun appears higher than its actual position. This optical illusion increases the visible duration of the Sun each day and is a well-known atmospheric optical effect caused by refraction in Earth’s Atmosphere.
Option b – atmospheric refraction
The bending of light rays in a denser medium is termed as
(a) Reflection
(b) Dispersion
(c) Refraction
(d) Deflection
Explanation: When light travels from one medium to another, its speed changes depending on the optical density of the new medium. In a denser medium, light slows down and changes direction at the boundary. This change in direction is not random but follows a predictable rule based on the angle of incidence and the refractive indices of the two media. The phenomenon occurs because different parts of the light wavefront enter the new medium at different times, causing a shift in direction. This process is fundamental in explaining how lenses, prisms, and natural phenomena like mirages work in Optics.
Option c – Refraction
Which one of the following instruments is used for measuring the moisture content of air? ( Arihant DC Pandey Physicsmcq )
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Hygrometer
(c) Hypsometer
(d) Pycnometer
Explanation: The moisture content in air refers to the amount of water vapour present in the Atmosphere. Measuring this requires an instrument that can detect humidity levels accurately. Such devices are designed to respond to changes in moisture and convert them into readable values. This is important in weather forecasting, Agriculture, and Environmental Studies because humidity affects temperature perception, cloud formation, and rainfall prediction. The working principle involves physical or chemical changes in materials that respond to moisture, allowing scientists to determine relative humidity in the air.
Option b – Hygrometer
If the door of a refrigerator is kept open, then which of the following is true?
(a) The room is cooled.
(b) The room is heated.
(c) Room is either cooled or heated
(d) The room is neither cooled nor heated
Explanation: A refrigerator works by removing Heat from its internal compartment and releasing it into the surrounding room. When the door is left open, the cooling system continues to operate, but the cold air inside mixes with the room air. Instead of cooling the room, the compressor keeps working and releases Heat into the same room. This results in a NET increase in temperature. The system cannot reduce the overall Heat in the closed Environment; it only transfers Heat from one region to another, following the principle of conservation of energy.
Option b – The room is heated
During the melting of a Solid, its temperature ( Arihant DC Pandey Physics mcq )
(a) decreases.
(b) increases.
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the Solid.
(d) does not change.
Explanation: When a Solid changes into a liquid, it undergoes a phase change known as melting. During this process, the energy supplied is used to break the bonds between particles rather than increasing their kinetic energy. As a result, the temperature remains constant even though Heat is continuously added. This Heat is called latent Heat of fusion. Only after the entire Solid has melted does the temperature of the substance begin to rise again. This behavior reflects how energy is utilized in changing the state of Matter rather than changing temperature.
Option d – does not change
Humidity refers to
(a) the direction of the wind.
(b) temperature of the air.
(c) moisture content of the air.
(d) the pressure of the air.
Explanation: Humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapour present in the air. It plays a major role in determining weather conditions and human comfort levels. High humidity makes the air feel warmer because sweat evaporation slows down, while low humidity makes it feel cooler. It is usually expressed as relative humidity, which compares the current moisture content of air to the maximum it can hold at a given temperature. This concept is important in meteorology, Agriculture, and Climate studies because it influences rainfall and atmospheric stability.
Option c – moisture content of the air
The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called ( Arihant DC Pandey Physics mcq )
Explanation: When a force is applied to a surface, it can act either parallel or perpendicular to that surface. The component of force acting perpendicular is responsible for pressing or pushing the surface. This force plays a key role in defining pressure, which is the force per unit area. It is commonly observed in everyday situations such as objects resting on tables or fluids exerting force on container walls. Understanding this force is essential in mechanics because it helps explain how objects interact with surfaces and how pressure is distributed in Solids and fluids.
Option c – thrust
The bulk modulus of elasticity is defined as
(a) the ratio of longitudinal stress to the longitudinal strain within the elastic limit.
(b) the ratio of normal stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic limit.
(c) the ratio of shearing stress to the shearing strain within the elastic limit.
(d) None of the above
Explanation: Bulk modulus describes how a material responds to uniform pressure applied from all directions. It measures the resistance of a substance to compression. When pressure is applied, the volume of the material changes slightly, and the bulk modulus relates this pressure change to the resulting change in volume. A high bulk modulus means the material is difficult to compress, while a low value indicates it is easily compressible. This concept is important in understanding the behavior of Solids, liquids, and gases under pressure in engineering and physics applications.
Option b – the ratio of normal stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic limit
The modulus of rigidity of a liquid is ( Arihant DC Pandey Physics mcq )
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) one
(d) None of the above
Explanation: Modulus of rigidity measures a material’s ability to resist shape deformation when a shear force is applied. In Solids, this value is significant because they can resist changes in shape. However, liquids cannot sustain shear stress; they flow immediately when a tangential force is applied. Due to this inability to resist shear deformation, the modulus of rigidity for a liquid is considered zero. This property distinguishes liquids from Solids and is important in Fluid mechanics where flow behavior is studied under applied forces.
Option a – zero
The spring balance works on the principle of…
(a) Boyle’s Law
(b) Hooke’s Law
(c) Bernoulli’s Principle
(d) Pascal’s Law
Explanation: A spring balance measures force based on the extension or compression of a spring. When a load is applied, the spring stretches proportionally within its elastic limit. This proportionality between force and extension is described by a fundamental principle of elasticity. The device converts mechanical force into measurable displacement, which is then calibrated into weight units. It is widely used for measuring weight because of its simplicity and accuracy within the elastic range of the spring material.
Option b – Hooke’s Law
The Young’s modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) infinite
(d) None of the above
Explanation: Young’s modulus measures the stiffness of a material by comparing stress to strain within the elastic limit. A perfectly rigid body is defined as one that does not deform under applied force. Since strain is zero for such a body, the ratio of stress to strain becomes infinitely large. This implies that an infinite amount of force would be required to produce any deformation. In practical terms, perfectly rigid bodies do not exist, but this concept is used as an idealization in theoretical physics and mechanics.
Option c – infinite
In an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus of a material of a wire, the suspended Mass is doubled. Then Young’s modulus of the wire
(a) becomes double.
(b) becomes four times.
(c) remain unchanged.
(d) becomes half.
Explanation: Young’s modulus depends only on the material properties and not on the external load applied, provided the material remains within its elastic limit. When the suspended Mass increases, the stress on the wire increases, causing greater strain. However, the ratio of stress to strain remains constant because both increase proportionally. Therefore, the calculated Young’s modulus does not change. This principle highlights that elastic constants are intrinsic properties of materials and are independent of the applied force or deformation magnitude within elastic limits.
Option c – remain unchanged
De-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of 60 volts is
a. 1.49 eV
b. 1.58 eV
c. 149 eV
d. 1.52 eV
Explanation: When an electron is accelerated through a potential difference, it gains kinetic energy equal to the electrical work done on it. This energy increases its momentum, and according to wave-particle duality, every moving particle has an associated wavelength. The de-Broglie wavelength is inversely related to momentum, meaning faster or more energetic electrons have shorter wavelengths. As the accelerating voltage increases, the electron’s speed increases, reducing its wavelength. This relationship connects quantum mechanics with classical Electricity concepts and is widely used in electron Diffraction and microscopy. The calculation involves relating kinetic energy gained from the Electric Field to the momentum of the electron.
Option a – 1.49 eV
For a non-relativistic free particle, the phase velocity is equal to
a. double the group velocity
b. half of the group velocity
c. group velocity
d. a quarter of the group velocity
Explanation: In wave mechanics, a moving particle is associated with a Matterwave that has both group velocity and phase velocity. The group velocity represents the actual motion of the particle, while phase velocity describes the propagation of the wave phase. For a non-relativistic particle, the phase velocity depends on the ratio of particle energy to momentum. It turns out that this phase velocity is mathematically related to the group velocity and is typically higher. This relationship arises from the wave nature of Matter and the energy-momentum relations in classical quantum mechanics.
Option c – group velocity
According to the Wilson-Sommerfeld quantization rule, only those orbits or stationary states are permissible in which the value of each phase integral is an integral multiple of
a. Planck’s constant
b. de-Broglie constant
c. Rydberg’s constant
d. None of the above
Explanation: The Wilson–Sommerfeld quantization rule is an early quantum condition used to describe allowed electron orbits in atoms before modern quantum mechanics. It states that only certain discrete orbits are permitted where the action integral of momentum over position follows a quantized condition. This idea introduced the concept that microscopic systems cannot have continuous energy values but instead exist in discrete states. It was an extension of Bohr’s model and laid the foundation for wave mechanics. The rule connects classical motion with early quantum restrictions on atomic systems.
Option a – Planck’s constant
If 20% of a radioactive isotope decays in 5 days, then the amount of the original material left after 15 days will be approximately
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 20%
d. none of the above
Explanation: Radioactive decay follows an exponential law where the rate of decay is proportional to the number of undecayed nuclei. If a fixed percentage decays in a given time interval, the remaining fraction decreases repeatedly over equal time periods. Over successive equal intervals, the remaining quantity is multiplied by the same survival fraction each time. This leads to rapid reduction in the original material over time. The process is governed by the concept of half-life and exponential decay equations, which describe how unstable nuclei transform into more stable forms over time.
Option a – 50%
A proton is accelerated through a potential difference of 200 volts. The accelerating voltage required to have the same wavelength associated with an alpha particle would be
a. 200 volts
b. 50 volts
c. 100 volts
d. 25 volts
Explanation: The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle depends on its momentum, which in turn depends on its Mass and velocity. When particles are accelerated through a potential difference, they gain kinetic energy proportional to their charge. Since protons and alpha particles have different masses and charges, the same accelerating voltage does not produce the same wavelength. To achieve equal wavelengths, the kinetic energies must be adjusted so that their momenta match. This involves comparing charge-to-Mass ratios and ensuring equivalent wave behavior despite different particle properties.
Option d – 25 volts
90% of the active nuclei present in a radioactive sample are found to remain undecayed after 1 day. The percentage of undecayed nuclei left after two days will be
a. 80%
b. 79%
c. 82%
d. 85%
Explanation: Radioactive decay follows a constant probability law where each nucleus has a fixed chance of decaying per unit time. If 90% remain after one day, the same decay fraction applies to the remaining nuclei in the next equal time period. This leads to exponential decrease rather than linear reduction. Each time interval reduces the remaining sample by the same proportion, not a fixed amount. This principle is fundamental in nuclear physics and is used to determine half-life and predict long-term stability of radioactive materials.
Option a – 80%
The inductive reactance (Wh) of a coil is expressed in
a. Ampere
b. Volt
c. Ohm
d. Weber
Explanation: Inductive reactance is the opposition offered by an inductor to Alternating Current. It depends on the frequency of the AC supply and the inductance of the coil. Higher frequency or higher inductance increases this opposition. Since it behaves like resistance in an AC circuit, it is measured in the same unit as resistance. It does not consume energy like a resistor but temporarily stores energy in the magnetic field. This concept is important in analyzing AC circuits and understanding phase differences between voltage and current.
Option c – Ohm
The ratio of e/m of a proton and e/m of an alpha particle is
a. 2 : 1
b. 1 : 2
c. 1 : 4
d. 1 : 1
Explanation: The charge-to-Mass ratio (e/m) is an important property of charged particles that determines their behavior in electric and magnetic fields. A proton has a single positive charge and relatively small Mass compared to an alpha particle, which consists of two protons and two neutrons. Although the alpha particle has double the charge, its Mass is much larger, reducing its e/m ratio. Comparing these ratios helps in understanding how different particles respond to electromagnetic fields and is widely used in Mass spectrometry and particle physics experiments.
Option a – 2 : 1
The forbidden energy gap of Ge crystal at 0°K is
a. 0.72 eV
b. 0.072 eV
c. 1.05 eV
d. 1 eV
Explanation: In semiconductors like germanium, electrons occupy energy bands separated by a forbidden energy gap. At absolute zero temperature, electrons are in the lowest energy state, and the gap between valence and conduction bands determines electrical conductivity. A smaller band gap means electrons can be excited more easily at higher temperatures, making the material a good semiconductor. The energy gap is a fundamental property that controls electronic behavior in devices like diodes and transistors. It plays a key role in determining how materials conduct Electricity under different conditions.
Option a – 0.72 eV
The current that results from thermoionic emission is known as
a. Thermoionic current
b. Induced current
c. Photo-electric current
d. None of the above
Explanation: Thermionic emission occurs when electrons are emitted from a metal surface due to thermal energy. When a metal is heated to high temperatures, electrons gain enough energy to overcome the surface potential barrier and escape into vacuum or surrounding space. The flow of these emitted electrons constitutes an electric current. This phenomenon is widely used in vacuum tubes and cathode ray devices. The emission depends on temperature and the nature of the metal, especially its work function, which determines how easily electrons can escape the surface.
Explanation: A transistor is a semiconductor device used for amplification and switching of electronic signals. It consists of three regions that control the flow of charge carriers, allowing it to regulate current or voltage in a circuit. It replaced vacuum tubes due to its small size, efficiency, and reliability. The name reflects its function of transferring and controlling resistance or current flow within electronic circuits. Transistors form the basis of modern electronics, including computers, Communication systems, and integrated circuits.
Explanation: Crystal diodes are semiconductor devices that allow current to flow in one direction using a p-n junction. They operate without a vacuum and do not require heating elements like vacuum diodes. Because they use Solid-state materials, they are much smaller in size and lighter in weight. They also consume less power and respond faster due to the movement of charge carriers within a crystal lattice. Vacuum diodes rely on thermionic emission in a vacuum tube, which makes them bulkier and less efficient. Crystal diodes are widely used in modern electronics for rectification and signal processing due to their reliability and efficiency.
Option d – all of these
The mutual characteristics of a triode valve can be obtained by plotting
a. Plate current and potential
b. Grid current and plate potential
c. Plate current and grid voltage
d. Grid current and grid potential
Explanation: A triode valve is an electronic device that controls current flow using a grid placed between cathode and anode. Its behavior is studied using characteristic curves that show relationships between different electrical quantities. The mutual characteristics specifically describe how the output current varies with changes in control voltage while keeping other parameters constant. This helps in understanding the amplification properties of the device. By analyzing these curves, engineers can determine how effectively the triode can amplify signals and operate in electronic circuits such as amplifiers and oscillators.
Option a – Plate current and potential
An N-type semiconductor has
a. Electrons in excess
b. Both holes and electrons in excess
c. Holes in excess
d. None of the above
Explanation: An N-type semiconductor is formed by doping a pure semiconductor with pentavalent impurities. These impurities contribute extra electrons that are loosely bound and can move freely within the material. As a result, electrons become the majority charge carriers, while holes are in the minority. This increase in free electrons enhances electrical conductivity. The behavior of N-type semiconductors is crucial in designing electronic components like diodes and transistors. The movement of electrons under an applied Electric Field determines the current flow in such materials.
Option a – Electrons in excess
If an object dropped from a height of 200 meters at latitude 45°, then the magnitude of deflection is:
a. 0.0439 meters
b. 0.0697 meters
c. 2.09 meters
d. None
Explanation: When an object falls freely on Earth, its motion is influenced not only by gravity but also by Earth’s rotation. Due to the Coriolis effect, the falling body experiences a slight sideways deflection. This effect depends on latitude, height, and time of fall. At mid-latitudes, such as 45°, the deflection is noticeable but very small. The object does not fall in a perfectly straight vertical line because Earth’s surface is rotating beneath it. This phenomenon is an example of motion in a rotating reference frame and is important in geophysics and atmospheric physics.
Option a – 0.0439 meters
A thin ring of Mass 2.7 kg and radius 8 cm rotates about an axis through its center and perpendicular to the plane of the ring at 1.5 rev/sec. Then the kinetic energy (K.E) of the ring is:
a. 0.56 J
b. 0.76 J
c. 1.2 J
d. 1.98 J
Explanation: A rotating body possesses kinetic energy due to its angular motion. For a thin ring, all its Mass is concentrated at the same radius from the axis of rotation. Its rotational kinetic energy depends on its moment of inertia and angular velocity. The angular velocity is obtained from revolutions per second and converted into radians per second. The energy increases with the square of angular velocity, meaning faster rotation significantly increases kinetic energy. This concept is widely used in Rotational Dynamics and mechanical systems involving wheels and rotating objects.
Option b – 0.76 J
The rotational K.E of a 25 kg wheel rotating at 6 rev/sec, if the radius of gyration of the wheel is 0.22 m is:
a. 250 J
b. 410 J
c. 860 J
d. 1192 J
Explanation: Rotational kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body due to its rotation about an axis. It depends on the moment of inertia and the square of angular velocity. A wheel rotating at a higher frequency stores more energy because angular velocity increases the energy quadratically. The radius of gyration helps determine how mass is distributed relative to the axis. This concept is important in engineering applications such as flywheels, where rotational energy is stored and released to maintain smooth mechanical operation.
Option c – 860 J
An electric motor runs at 900 rev/min and delivers 2 Hp. Then the torque it delivers (1 Hp = 746 W) is:
a. 15.8 N-m
b. 10.9 N-m
c. 21.9 N-m
d. 82 N-m
Explanation: Torque represents the rotational force produced by a motor. It is related to power and angular speed. power is the rate of doing work, and in rotational systems, it depends on both torque and angular velocity. When a motor runs at a given speed and delivers a certain power, torque can be calculated by relating these quantities. Higher torque means greater ability to rotate heavy loads. This relationship is fundamental in mechanical engineering and helps in designing motors for different applications like vehicles and industrial machines.
Option a – 15.8 N-m
A particle is moving under a central force about a fixed center of force. Choose the correct statement:
a. The motion of the particle is always on a circular path.
b. Its angular momentum is conserved.
c. Its kinetic energy remains constant.
d. None
Explanation: In a central force field, the force always acts along the line joining the particle and a fixed center. Such forces do not produce torque about the center, which leads to conservation of angular momentum. This means the particle’s rotational motion remains constant unless acted upon by an external torque. However, its kinetic energy may change depending on the nature of the force. This concept is widely used in planetary motion, where gravitational force acts as a central force governing orbital motion.
Option b – Its angular momentum is conserved
The mean distance of a mass from the sun is 5.242 times the distance of the Earth from the sun. Then the period of revolution of the mass around the sun is:
a. 1-year
b. 1.88 years
c. 5.72 years
d. 1.5 years
Explanation: Planetary motion follows Kepler’s third law, which relates the square of the orbital period to the cube of the average distance from the Sun. This means that planets farther from the Sun take significantly longer to complete one revolution. Even small increases in distance lead to large increases in orbital period. This law helps in predicting planetary motion and understanding the structure of the Solar system. It is derived from gravitational principles and applies to all objects orbiting a central massive body.
Option b – 1.88 years
An example of a non-central force is:
a. Pseudo force
b. Censor force
c. Coriolis force
d. None
Explanation: A non-central force is one whose line of action does not pass through a fixed central point. Such forces can cause both linear and rotational effects on a body. Unlike central forces, they may produce torque, leading to changes in angular momentum. Pseudo forces appear in non-inertial reference frames and do not originate from physical interactions. These forces are introduced to explain motion in accelerating systems and are not true interaction forces. Understanding non-central forces is important in analyzing complex motion in rotating systems.
Option b – Censor force
The transverse acceleration of a body in a central force field is:
a. Zero
b. Non-zero
c. Applicable
d. None
Explanation: In a central force field, the force acts only along the radial direction toward or away from the center. Since there is no component of force perpendicular to this direction, the transverse (angular) acceleration is zero. This means the angular momentum of the system remains conserved. The motion is confined to a plane, and the particle’s direction changes only due to radial forces. This property is essential in explaining stable orbital motion in planetary systems and other central force interactions.
Option a – Zero
Weightlessness experienced while orbiting the Earth in space-ships is the result of:
a. Inertia
b. Acceleration
c. Zero gravity
d. Center of gravity
Explanation: Weightlessness in orbit occurs because both the spacecraft and the objects inside it are in continuous free fall toward Earth. However, due to their high tangential velocity, they keep missing the Earth and remain in orbit. Since everything inside the spacecraft accelerates equally under gravity, no normal reaction force is felt. Weight is essentially the normal force acting on a body, and in this case, it becomes zero. This creates the sensation of weightlessness experienced by astronauts in space.
Option b – Acceleration
The relay satellite transmits the TV program continuously from one part of the world to another because it:
a. Period is greater than the period of rotation of Earth
b. The period is less than the period of rotation of Earth
c. The period is equal to the period of rotation of Earth
d. Mass is less than the mass of Earth
Explanation: A relay satellite is placed in a specific orbit where its orbital period matches Earth’s rotation. This allows it to remain fixed relative to a particular region on Earth’s surface. Such satellites are called geostationary satellites. Because of this synchronization, they can continuously receive and transmit signals without interruption. This makes them ideal for Communication purposes like television broadcasting and weather monitoring. Their constant position relative to Earth ensures stable and uninterrupted signal transmission.
Option c – The period is equal to the period of rotation of Earth
In a planetary orbit, perihelion is the point of:
a. Smallest distance from the sun
b. Largest distance from the sun
c. Unknown distance from the sun
d. Smallest distance from the moon
Explanation: In orbital motion, a planet travels around the Sun in an elliptical path with the Sun at one focus. Because of this shape, the distance between the planet and the Sun is not constant throughout its orbit. There is a specific point where the planet comes closest to the Sun, and at this position, its gravitational interaction with the Sun is strongest and its orbital speed is highest. This point is important in celestial mechanics because it affects orbital velocity changes and energy distribution in the orbit. It is a key concept in understanding elliptical orbits described by Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
Option a – Smallest distance from the sun
A person who is colorblind cannot distinguish between
(a) Black and yellow
(b) Red and green
(c) Yellow and white
(d) Green and blue
Explanation: Color vision depends on specialized cells in the retina called cones, which respond to different wavelengths of light corresponding to colors. In color blindness, one or more types of these cone cells are absent or not functioning properly. This results in difficulty distinguishing certain pairs of colors, especially those that lie close together in the visible Spectrum. The condition is usually genetic and affects perception rather than clarity of vision. It does not make vision blurry but alters color interpretation, making some hues appear similar or indistinguishable under normal lighting conditions.
Option b – Red and green
The minimum distance of clear vision for a normal healthy eye of a human being is supposed to be
(a) 50 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 25 cm
Explanation: The human eye has a closest distance at which it can focus objects clearly without strain. This distance is determined by the eye’s ability to adjust the curvature of its lens through a process called accommodation. At very close distances, the lens becomes too curved, and the image cannot be focused properly on the retina. For a normal healthy eye, there is a standard near point where objects appear sharp and comfortable to view. This value is important in Optics and vision science as it defines the limit of comfortable reading distance for humans.
Option d – 25 cm
The focal length of the lens of a normal human eye is about
(a) 25 cm
(b) 1 m
(c) 2.5 mm
(d) 2.5 cm
Explanation: The human eye functions like a convex lens system that focuses incoming light onto the retina to form images. The focal length of this optical system is not fixed but adjusts slightly depending on the viewing distance through accommodation. For a normal eye, this focal length is small and allows proper focusing of distant and nearby objects on the retina. The eye achieves this by changing the curvature of the lens using ciliary muscles. This ability ensures clear vision over a range of distances and is essential for daily visual tasks.
Option d – 2.5 cm
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.
(b) The retina of the human eye contains millions of light-sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert the light into electrical messages.
(c) Every image that is focused on the retina is upside down.
(d) We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately.
Explanation: The human eye is a complex optical instrument that refracts light through the cornea and lens before forming an image on the retina. The retina contains photoreceptor cells that convert light into electrical signals sent to the brain. The image formed on the retina is inverted, but the brain interprets it correctly. While both eyes help in depth perception, each eye individually forms an image. Some descriptions of the eye may incorrectly state its optical nature or lens type, so understanding the correct functioning of its components is important in identifying inaccurate statements.
Option a – The human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens
To remove the defect of long-sightedness, one uses
(a) Concave lens
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Convex lens
(d) Concave mirror
Explanation: Long-sightedness, also known as hypermetropia, is a vision defect where distant objects are seen clearly but nearby objects appear blurred. This happens because light from near objects focuses behind the retina instead of directly on it. To correct this defect, a lens is used that converges incoming light rays before they enter the eye, shifting the focal point forward onto the retina. This adjustment allows proper image formation for near objects. The correction depends on the optical power required to compensate for the eye’s reduced converging ability.
Option c – Convex lens
In long-sightedness, images are formed
(a) on the retina
(b) in front of the retina
(c) behind the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Explanation: In long-sightedness or hypermetropia, the eye is unable to focus nearby objects properly because the eye lens does not converge light sufficiently. As a result, light rays from close objects converge at a point beyond the retina instead of on it. This causes nearby objects to appear blurred while distant objects may remain clear. The defect arises due to either a shorter eyeball or reduced curvature of the eye lens. Optical correction shifts the image formation forward onto the retina for clear vision.
Option c – behind the retina
Rajat has hypermetropia. What type of lens will the ophthalmologist recommend to correct his vision?
(a) Bifocal
(b) Concave
(c) Progressive
(d) Convex
Explanation: Hypermetropia is a condition where the eye cannot focus on nearby objects due to insufficient convergence of light rays. To correct this, a lens is used that increases the converging power of the eye system. This lens bends incoming light rays inward before they enter the eye, ensuring that the image forms correctly on the retina. The required lens strength depends on the severity of the defect. Proper correction restores normal near vision and reduces eye strain during reading or close work.
Option d – Convex
A person is unable to read a newspaper without his glasses. He is most probably suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) presbyopia
(c) astigmatism
(d) hypermetropia
Explanation: Difficulty in reading nearby objects while distant vision remains relatively clear indicates a defect in near vision. This condition typically occurs with age due to reduced flexibility of the eye lens and weakening of ciliary muscles. As a result, the eye cannot properly adjust its focal length for close objects. This leads to blurred vision for reading and other near tasks. The condition is corrected using lenses that help the eye focus light correctly on the retina for nearby objects.
Option b – presbyopia
The lens type commonly used for correcting presbyopia is
(a) bifocal lens
(b) cylindrical lens
(c) convex lens
(d) concave lens
Explanation: Presbyopia is an age-related vision defect in which the eye loses its ability to focus on nearby objects. This happens because the lens becomes less flexible and the ciliary muscles weaken over time. To correct this condition, a special type of lens is used that combines different optical powers for near and distant vision. This allows the wearer to see clearly at multiple distances without changing glasses frequently. The correction is designed to restore comfortable near vision while maintaining overall visual clarity.
Option a – bifocal lens
The energy of a photon, whose momentum is 10 MeV/c, where c is the speed of light, is given by
(a) 10 MeV
(b) 100 MeV
(c) 1 MeV
(d) 0.1 MeV
Explanation: Photons are particles of light that always travel at the speed of light and have zero rest mass. Their energy is directly related to their momentum through a fundamental relation in relativistic physics. Since photons do not have mass, their energy depends entirely on their momentum. This relationship connects quantum mechanics with relativity and is widely used in high-energy physics. It allows conversion between energy and momentum units, especially in particle physics where energy is often expressed in electron volts.
Option a – 10 MeV
An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?
(a) The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different.
(b) The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton.
(c) The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron.
(d) The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal.
Explanation: When charged particles are accelerated through the same potential difference, they gain the same amount of kinetic energy because energy gained depends on charge and voltage. However, their speeds differ due to their different masses. The lighter particle attains a much higher speed for the same energy compared to a heavier particle. This difference is crucial in understanding particle motion in electric fields. The relationship between energy, mass, and velocity explains why particles behave differently under identical electrical acceleration.
Option b – The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a moving particle is
(a) directly proportional to its mass.
(b) directly proportional to its energy.
(c) directly proportional to its momentum.
(d) inversely proportional to its momentum.
Explanation: The de-Broglie hypothesis states that every moving particle exhibits wave-like behavior. The wavelength associated with a particle depends on its momentum. As momentum increases, the wavelength decreases, showing an inverse relationship. This concept is a cornerstone of quantum mechanics and explains phenomena like electron Diffraction. It connects classical motion with wave behavior and shows that Matter has dual nature. This principle is widely used in studying microscopic particles where wave effects become significant.
Option d – inversely proportional to its momentum
The electrons are emitted in the photoelectric effect from a metal surface
(a) only if the frequency of the incident radiation is above a certain threshold value.
(b) only if the temperature of the surface is high.
(c) at a rate that is independent of the nature of the metal.
(d) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
Explanation: The photoelectric effect occurs when light of sufficient frequency strikes a metal surface and ejects electrons. For emission to occur, the incident light must have energy greater than the work function of the metal. The number of emitted electrons depends on the intensity of light, while their energy depends on frequency. This phenomenon demonstrates the particle Nature of Light and supports the concept of photons. It played a key role in the development of quantum theory by showing that energy is quantized.
Option a – only if the frequency of the incident radiation is above a certain threshold value
The light is composed of small particles, called ……
(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) photon
(d) alpha particle
Explanation: Light exhibits both wave-like and particle-like properties, a concept known as wave-particle duality. In its particle nature, light is made up of discrete packets of energy. These packets carry energy proportional to their frequency and are responsible for interactions like the photoelectric effect. This idea revolutionized classical physics and led to the development of quantum mechanics. These energy packets travel at the speed of light and have no rest mass, yet they carry momentum and energy.
Option c – photon
We covered all the arihant dc pandey physics Class 11mcqs above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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