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NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology for Students
Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?
(A) During the development of the embryo, the zygote undergoes mitosis only.
(B) In the process of embryogenesis, the zygote undergoes mitotic cell division and cell differentiation.
(C) In Organisms belonging to the group’s fungi and algae, the zygote develops a thick wall.
(D) In Organisms with haplontic life cycles, diploid spores are formed that grow in diploid individuals.
Explanation: Embryogenesis is a fundamental biological process involving the transformation of a single-celled zygote into a multicellular organism through tightly regulated stages. This includes repeated rounds of cell division followed by differentiation, where cells gradually acquire specialized structure and function. In different Organisms, early development patterns may vary, especially between fungi, algae, and animals, where protective structures around the zygote may form under specific environmental conditions. Life cycles can also differ as haplontic, diplontic, or haplodiplontic depending on the dominant phase and ploidy levels involved. Understanding these processes requires attention to how chromosomes behave during reproduction and how developmental pathways are genetically controlled. Misconceptions often arise when mitosis, meiosis, and spore formation are confused across different biological groups. Additionally, the interpretation of life cycle stages must align with whether Organisms produce haploid or diploid structures during reproduction. Careful analysis of developmental Biology concepts helps distinguish between correct and incorrect biological statements regarding zygote development, sporulation, and ploidy transitions across different taxa.
Option d – In Organisms with haplontic life cycles, diploid spores are formed that grow in diploid individuals.
………. stimulates Leydig cells to synthesize and secrete androgens. ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) FSH
(B) LH
(C) PL
(D) ATH
Explanation: The male reproductive system is regulated by a complex interaction of hormones originating from the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland. These hormones control spermatogenesis and the production of male sex hormones in the testes. Leydig cells, located in the interstitial spaces of the testes, are responsible for producing androgens, which are essential for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and proper functioning of reproductive organs. Hormonal regulation involves trophic hormones that act as signaling molecules, binding to specific receptors on target cells and triggering biochemical pathways that lead to hormone synthesis and secretion. This regulatory axis ensures balance in reproductive physiology and maintains fertility. Disruptions in this hormonal signaling can affect sperm production, sexual development, and overall endocrine balance. Understanding this system requires knowledge of endocrine feedback loops, cellular signaling, and the role of pituitary hormones in reproductive control.
Option b – LH
The gametes of Fucus (an alga) are
(A) isogametes
(B) heterogametes
(C) homogametes
(D) any of these
Explanation: Sexual reproduction in algae involves the formation and fusion of gametes, which may be similar or dissimilar depending on the organism. In some algae, gametes are morphologically identical, while in others they differ in size, structure, or motility. This variation is an important evolutionary step toward sexual dimorphism. Fucus is a brown alga where sexual reproduction shows advanced differentiation of male and female gametes. Understanding this requires knowledge of isogamy, anisogamy, and oogamy, which describe increasing levels of gamete specialization. In simpler Organisms, gametes are often similar and indistinguishable, but in more complex algae, specialization leads to distinct male and female gametes adapted for fertilization efficiency. This progression is significant in evolutionary Biology because it reflects adaptation toward improved reproductive success and genetic variation.
Option b – heterogametes
Which of the following is a diploid cell? ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) Secondary spermatocyte
(B) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Secondary oocyte
(D) Spermatid
Explanation: Cell division during gametogenesis involves stages of meiosis that produce haploid cells from diploid precursors. In the male and female reproductive systems, primary germ cells undergo meiosis to form gametes, passing through intermediate stages with different chromosome numbers. Diploid cells contain two complete sets of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent, and are essential for maintaining genetic stability across generations. During spermatogenesis and oogenesis, certain stages remain diploid before meiotic division reduces the chromosome number. Distinguishing between diploid and haploid stages is crucial for understanding inheritance, genetic variation, and reproductive Biology. Many confusion points arise when intermediate meiotic stages are misidentified, especially between primary and secondary reproductive cells. A clear understanding of chromosomal behavior during meiosis helps identify which cells retain full genetic content and which are reduced to haploid condition.
Option b – Primary spermatocyte
Which of the following is NOT a bisexual Animal?
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Leech
(C) Sponge
(D) Ascaris
Explanation: Reproductive strategies in animals vary widely and include bisexuality (having both male and female reproductive systems in the same individual) and unisexuality (separate sexes). Some Organisms are hermaphrodites, possessing both reproductive organs and capable of producing both types of gametes, while others have distinct sexes. Understanding Animal reproductive classification requires knowledge of body organization and reproductive organ distribution. Invertebrates often show a wide range of reproductive adaptations, including simultaneous or sequential hermaphroditism. However, certain Organisms are strictly unisexual and do not possess both reproductive systems within the same individual. Identifying reproductive types is important in taxonomy and evolutionary Biology as it reflects adaptations to environmental conditions and reproductive efficiency.
Option d – Ascaris
Which of the following type of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grain to the stigma? ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) Autogamy
(B) Xenogamy
(C) Geitonogamy
(D) Cleistogamy
Explanation: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma and plays a crucial role in plant sexual reproduction. Different types of pollination affect genetic variation in offspring. When pollen comes from the same flower or same plant, genetic variation is limited. However, when pollen is transferred between different plants of the same species, it introduces new genetic combinations. This enhances genetic diversity, which is essential for adaptation and survival in changing environments. Pollination mechanisms are influenced by environmental agents such as wind, water, and animals, and each mechanism has different genetic outcomes. Understanding these processes helps explain plant Evolution and breeding systems.
Option b – Xenogamy
Progestasert is a/an
(A) hormone-releasing IUD
(B) non-medicated IUD
(C) contraceptive pill
(D) copper releasing IUD
Explanation: Contraceptive methods include hormonal, barrier, and intrauterine devices that prevent pregnancy through different mechanisms. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are small devices inserted into the uterus to prevent fertilization or implantation. Some IUDs release hormones that modify the uterine Environment, affecting sperm motility and ovum implantation. Others release metal ions that interfere with gamete function. Hormone-releasing devices act by altering cervical mucus and endometrial lining, reducing the chances of fertilization and implantation. Understanding contraceptive types requires knowledge of reproductive physiology and hormonal regulation. These devices are widely used due to their long-term effectiveness and reversibility.
Option a – hormone-releasing IUD
Identify the INCORRECT statement. ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilization event.
(B) In Organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, the male gametes are motile.
(C) In seed plants, the non-motile male gametes are carried to the female gamete by pollen tubes.
(D) In the case of external fertilization, less number of male gametes are formed as compared to female gametes.
Explanation: Reproduction involves a sequence of biological events including gametogenesis, fertilization, and development. Gametogenesis refers to the formation of male and female gametes and occurs before fertilization. Fertilization may occur internally or externally depending on the organism. In sexually reproducing Organisms, male gametes may be motile or non-motile depending on reproductive adaptations. In seed plants, pollen tubes facilitate the transfer of male gametes to the ovule. External fertilization often requires the release of large numbers of gametes to increase the chance of successful fertilization due to environmental exposure. Understanding reproductive events requires careful differentiation between pre-fertilization and post-fertilization processes and their biological significance.
Option d – In the case of external fertilization, less number of male gametes are formed as compared to female gametes.
Ovulation occurs due to sudden
(A) Sudden decrease in FSH level
(B) LH surge
(C) Reduced LH levels
(D) Increase in progesterone level
Explanation: The menstrual cycle is regulated by hormonal interactions between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. These hormones control follicular development, ovulation, and preparation of the uterine lining. A key event in the cycle is the release of a mature egg from the ovary, which is triggered by a sharp hormonal change. This surge in pituitary hormones ensures the rupture of the mature follicle and release of the ovum. The timing of this event is crucial for fertility, as it determines the window for possible fertilization. Hormonal feedback mechanisms regulate this process to maintain reproductive balance and cycle regularity.
Option b – LH surge
External fertilization occurs in ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) Turtle
(B) Psittacula
(C) Frog
(D) Equisetum
Explanation: Fertilization strategies vary among organisms and are adapted to their environments. External fertilization occurs when gametes are released outside the body, usually in aquatic environments, where water facilitates the meeting of sperm and egg. This method requires synchronized release of gametes and often produces a large number of gametes to increase the chance of successful fertilization. It is commonly seen in aquatic organisms where environmental conditions support gamete survival and movement. Internal fertilization, in contrast, occurs inside the female body and provides greater protection to gametes and embryos. Understanding fertilization strategies helps in studying reproductive adaptations and evolutionary success.
Option c – Frog
Calculate the total number of pollen grains produced by a dithecous anther containing 150 microspore mother cells in each pollen sac.
(A) 2400
(B) 600
(C) 6000
(D) 75
Explanation: Microsporogenesis is the process by which pollen grains are formed from microspore mother cells through meiotic division. Each microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid microspores, which later develop into pollen grains. In a dithecous anther, each anther has two pollen sacs, and each sac contains a number of microspore mother cells. The total pollen grain production depends on the number of mother cells and the tetrad formation process. This multiplication effect is central to understanding plant reproductive efficiency and pollen production in flowering plants. Such calculations are based on the principle that each meiotic division produces a fixed number of microspores.
Option a – 2400
The fusion of ovum and sperm during IVF occurs in the ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) fallopian tube
(B) uterus
(C) vagina
(D) Culture medium
Explanation: Assisted reproductive technologies are used to help individuals who face infertility issues. In vitro fertilization involves the fusion of male and female gametes outside the human body under controlled laboratory conditions. After fertilization occurs, the resulting embryo is transferred into the female reproductive system for further development. This technique bypasses natural fertilization pathways and is widely used in reproductive medicine. Understanding IVF requires knowledge of gamete handling, fertilization conditions, and embryonic development stages. It represents a significant advancement in medical science, allowing control over early developmental processes in a laboratory Environment before implantation.
Option d – Culture medium
Select the INCORRECT statement from the following.
(A) In a young anther, sporogenous tissue is diploid in nature.
(B) Each cell of sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.
(C) Each pollen mother cell undergoes repetitive mitotic divisions to form microspores.
(D) Microspores are arranged in a cluster of four cells hence called microspore tetrad.
Explanation: Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of microspores from diploid microspore mother cells inside the anther. These cells are part of sporogenous tissue and undergo meiotic division to produce haploid microspores arranged initially in tetrads. Each microspore then develops into a pollen grain through mitotic divisions. The anther structure includes layers like epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, and tapetum, each contributing to protection and nourishment. Tapetum plays a nutritive role, while sporogenous tissue gives rise to pollen mother cells. Understanding this process requires clarity on the difference between mitosis and meiosis, as well as correct identification of developmental stages of pollen formation. Misinterpretations often arise when mitotic and meiotic events are confused or when pollen mother cell divisions are incorrectly described.
Option c – Each pollen mother cell undergoes repetitive mitotic divisions to form microspores.
What is the correct sequence of spermatogenesis? ( NCERT Based mcq for NEET Biology )
(A) Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
(B) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
(C) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocytes, spermatids
(D) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatozoa, spermatids
Explanation: Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperm cells in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. It begins with diploid spermatogonia, which undergo mitotic division to maintain the germ cell pool. Some spermatogonia differentiate into primary spermatocytes, which then undergo meiosis I to form secondary spermatocytes. These secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II to produce spermatids, which later differentiate into mature spermatozoa through spermiogenesis. This ordered sequence ensures reduction of chromosome number and production of genetically varied gametes. The process is tightly regulated by hormones and cellular interactions within the testes. Understanding this sequence is essential for interpreting reproductive biology and gamete formation mechanisms.
Option b – Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: In lower organisms, asexual reproduction takes place through the fusion of male and female gametes. Statement II: In asexual reproduction, offsprings arise from a single organism.
(A) Statement I is correct, and statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II is correct.
(C) Both statements I and II are correct.
(D) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Explanation: Reproduction in Living Organisms involves both sexual and asexual methods depending on evolutionary adaptations. Asexual reproduction occurs from a single parent and does not involve fusion of gametes, leading to genetically identical offspring. Sexual reproduction involves gamete formation and fusion, resulting in genetic variation. Statements describing reproductive modes must be evaluated carefully by distinguishing between these two fundamental processes. Many misconceptions arise when features of sexual reproduction, such as gamete fusion, are incorrectly attributed to asexual reproduction. Understanding reproductive strategies helps explain Biodiversity, inheritance patterns, and survival mechanisms in different environments.
Option b – Statement I is incorrect, and statement II is correct.
The exine of the pollen grain is made up of …….. which is one of the most resistant Organic materials known. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) cellulose
(B) pectin
(C) lignin
(D) sporopollenin
Explanation: Pollen grains are male reproductive structures in flowering plants and are adapted for survival and dispersal. Their outer wall, called the exine, is highly resistant and protects the pollen from environmental stress such as Heat, dehydration, and microbial attack. This resistance is due to a special chemical composition that makes it one of the most durable biological materials known. The exine structure also plays a role in species recognition and pollen-pistil interactions during fertilization. The inner layer, intine, is more delicate and helps in pollen tube formation. Understanding pollen structure is important in Plant Reproduction, palynology, and evolutionary biology.
Option d – sporopollenin
Leydig cells secrete which of the following hormone?
(A) Glucagon
(B) LH
(C) Progesterone
(D) Androgens
Explanation: The testes contain specialized cells that perform endocrine functions essential for male reproductive development. Leydig cells, located in the interstitial spaces between seminiferous tubules, are responsible for producing hormones that regulate male secondary sexual characteristics and support spermatogenesis. These hormones are regulated by pituitary signals and play a major role in reproductive physiology, muscle development, and sexual maturation. Hormonal balance is crucial for maintaining fertility and overall male reproductive Health. Disruption in Leydig cell function can lead to hormonal imbalance and affect reproductive capability.
Option d – Androgens
Pick the out one out with respect to organisms that do not exhibit the oestrus cycle. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Monkeys
(B) Dogs
(C) Rats
(D) Sheeps
Explanation: The reproductive cycles of mammals differ significantly based on physiological and hormonal patterns. Some mammals exhibit an oestrus cycle, where females are sexually receptive only during specific periods, while others show a menstrual cycle with different hormonal regulation. Understanding these cycles requires knowledge of reproductive endocrinology and behavioral biology. Animals like primates differ from many other mammals in reproductive cycle patterns. Identifying exceptions involves comparing physiological cycles and reproductive strategies across species. These differences reflect evolutionary adaptations related to reproductive success and environmental factors.
Option a – Monkeys
Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement I: Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people. Statement II: Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen for years and can be used in crop breeding programs.
(A) Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect
(B) Statement II is correct, while statement I is incorrect
(C) Both statements I and II are correct
(D) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Explanation: Pollen grains play a crucial role in Plant Reproduction and are widely studied in plant breeding and environmental biology. They can cause allergic reactions in humans due to airborne dispersal of pollen proteins. At the same time, pollen grains can be preserved under extremely low temperatures, such as in liquid nitrogen, allowing long-term storage for future use in crop improvement programs. This dual significance highlights their biological and agricultural importance. Understanding pollen biology involves studying both ecological impacts and technological applications in plant breeding and conservation.
Option c – Both statements I and II are correct
Identify the INCORRECT match with respect to vegetative propagules in plants. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Ginger – Rhizome
(B) Agave – Bulbil
(C) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds
(D) Water Hyacinth – Tuber
Explanation: Vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction in plants where new individuals arise from vegetative parts such as stems, roots, or leaves. Different plants use specialized structures like rhizomes, bulbs, tubers, and leaf buds for propagation. Each structure has a specific morphological identity and function in survival and reproduction. For example, rhizomes are underground stems, while bulbils are modified structures that help in dispersal and growth. Understanding these structures is essential in plant biology and Agriculture as they contribute to rapid multiplication and genetic uniformity. Misidentification often occurs when structures are confused across plant species.
Option d – Water Hyacinth – Tuber
Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to tapetum.
(A) It is the innermost wall layer of the microsporangium.
(B) It mainly performs the function of protection.
(C) Cells of tapetum dense possess cytoplasm.
(D) Developing pollen grains get nourishment from tapetum.
Explanation: The tapetum is the innermost layer of the microsporangium and plays a vital role in pollen development. It provides Nutrition to developing pollen grains and contributes materials for pollen wall formation. The cells of the tapetum are metabolically active and often possess dense cytoplasm. It also helps in the formation of pollen exine by supplying precursors like sporopollenin. Understanding its function is essential for studying male gametophyte development in flowering plants. Misconceptions arise when its protective role is confused with its nutritive and biosynthetic functions.
Option b – It mainly performs the function of protection.
In which of the following type of natural selection, do more individuals acquire mean character value? ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Stabilizing
(B) Directional
(C) Disruptive
(D) Diversifying
Explanation: Natural selection is a mechanism of Evolution that influences the frequency of traits in a Population. In stabilizing selection, individuals with intermediate or mean traits are favored, while extreme variations are selected against. This leads to reduced variation and maintenance of a stable Population structure over time. It is common in stable environments where deviation from the average trait reduces survival chances. Understanding selection types is crucial in evolutionary biology as it explains how populations adapt or remain constant under environmental pressures.
Option a – Stabilizing
A doctor identifies symptoms of sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache, and loss of appetite. The conclusion is that the patient is infected by
(A) pneumonia
(B) typhoid
(C) ascariasis
(D) elephantiasis
Explanation: Infectious diseases often present with characteristic symptom patterns that help in clinical diagnosis before confirmatory laboratory tests. Fever with a sustained high temperature, abdominal discomfort, constipation, headache, and loss of appetite commonly indicate systemic infection affecting the gastrointestinal and reticuloendothelial systems. Such symptoms arise due to the body’s immune response to pathogenic invasion, where toxins and inflammatory mediators disrupt normal physiological functioning. Certain bacterial infections are known to specifically target the intestinal tract, leading to prolonged fever and digestive disturbances. Understanding symptom clusters helps differentiate between respiratory, parasitic, and gastrointestinal infections. Clinicians rely on these patterns along with epidemiological data and diagnostic tests to confirm the causative agent. Proper identification is important because treatment strategies vary significantly depending on whether the infection is bacterial, viral, or parasitic in nature.
Option b – typhoid
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding the human respiratory system. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) The larynx serves as a common passage for Food and air.
(B) Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to alveolus.
(C) Lungs are enclosed by a single-layered pericardium to prevent friction of lungs with adjacent organs.
(D) The trachea divides at the level of the 7th thoracic vertebra to form the right and left primary bronchi.
Explanation: The human respiratory system is a complex Network of air passages and lungs responsible for gas exchange between the body and the Environment. Air enters through the upper respiratory tract and passes through structures like the larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles before reaching the alveoli, where diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs. Each structure has a specialized function, including air conduction, filtration, humidification, and protection from foreign particles. The organization of the respiratory tract ensures efficient oxygen delivery to blood and removal of carbon dioxide. Any misunderstanding in the structural arrangement or function of these components can lead to incorrect interpretation of respiratory physiology. Proper knowledge of airway branching and alveolar function is essential for understanding breathing mechanics and respiratory disorders.
Option b – Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to alveolus.
Amphibians evolved into
(A) lobe-fined fish
(B) reptiles
(C) jawless vertebrates
(D) hemichordates
Explanation: Evolutionary transitions between major vertebrate groups represent key events in biological History. Amphibians are considered early tetrapods that adapted from aquatic to partially terrestrial environments. Over evolutionary time, they gave rise to more advanced vertebrates with better adaptations for life on land. These adaptations include improved skin protection, efficient lungs, and reproduction independent of water in many cases. Understanding vertebrate Evolution involves studying fossil records, anatomical changes, and genetic relationships among groups. The transition from amphibians to later vertebrates marks an important step in the diversification of terrestrial life forms.
Option b – reptiles
A pair of viral diseases are ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) typhoid and the common cold
(B) AIDS and the common cold
(C) pneumonia and ringworm.
(D) pneumonia and typhoid
Explanation: Infectious diseases are caused by different types of pathogens including viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa. Viral diseases are specifically caused by viruses, which are acellular infectious agents that replicate only inside host cells. They can cause respiratory, immune, and systemic infections depending on the virus type. Understanding Disease classification requires distinguishing between viral and non-viral pathogens based on causative agents and modes of transmission. Some diseases commonly confused in examinations are actually caused by different microorganisms, making careful identification essential. Knowledge of pathogen biology helps in prevention, diagnosis, and treatment strategies.
Option b – AIDS and the common cold
Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting part of the human respiratory system?
(A) Transport of atmospheric air to the alveoli
(B) Humidification of air
(C) Removal of foreign particles from the air
(D) Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and atmospheric air
Explanation: The respiratory system is divided into conducting and respiratory zones based on function. The conducting part includes air passages that Transport air from the external Environment to the lungs without participating in gas exchange. It also conditions the air by warming, humidifying, and filtering it to protect delicate lung tissues. The respiratory part, mainly the alveoli, is responsible for the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood. Understanding this division is essential for studying respiratory physiology. Misinterpretation often arises when gas exchange functions are incorrectly attributed to conducting airways, which actually serve only preparatory roles.
Option d – Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and atmospheric air
Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: About 65 mya, dinosaurs disappeared from the Earth. Statement II: Ichthyosaurs were fish-like reptiles.
(A) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect.
(C) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(D) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
Explanation: Earth’s biological History includes several Mass extinction events that drastically altered Biodiversity. One of the most significant occurred millions of years ago, leading to the disappearance of dominant reptilian groups. Fossil evidence also shows that certain prehistoric reptiles had adaptations similar to aquatic vertebrates, indicating evolutionary diversity within reptilian lineages. Studying such extinct organisms helps reconstruct evolutionary timelines and understand environmental changes that influenced survival and extinction. Paleontology provides evidence through fossils that help correlate species characteristics with geological periods. Accurate interpretation of such statements requires understanding both extinction events and fossil-based classification of ancient organisms.
Option c – Both statement I and statement II are correct.
……… is commonly called a smack.
(A) Cocaine
(B) Heroin
(C) Opioid
(D) Cannabinoid
Explanation: Substance abuse and drug classification involve understanding narcotic drugs and their effects on the human nervous system. Opioids are a class of drugs derived from natural or synthetic sources that act on opioid receptors in the brain, producing pain relief and euphoric effects. Some of these substances are highly addictive and are classified as illegal drugs due to their potential for abuse. They affect neurotransmitter activity, leading to changes in perception, mood, and behavior. Knowledge of drug categories is important in public Health and biology to understand addiction mechanisms, physiological effects, and societal impact.
Option b – Heroin
Respiration through a Network of tracheal tubes occurs in
(A) coelenterates
(B) insects
(C) flatworms
(D) poriferans
Explanation: Different organisms have evolved specialized respiratory systems to facilitate gas exchange efficiently. Insects possess a tracheal system consisting of a Network of tubes that directly deliver oxygen to tissues without involving the circulatory system. Air enters through openings called spiracles and travels through branching tracheae and tracheoles. This system is highly efficient for small and active organisms. Other Animal groups use different mechanisms such as gills or lungs depending on their habitat and evolutionary adaptations. Understanding respiratory diversity helps explain how organisms survive in varied environments.
Option b – insects
According to French naturalist Lamarck
(A) only minor variations are inheritable.
(B) Evolution of life forms had occurred but was driven by the use and disuse of organs.
(C) the process of Evolution is gradual.
(D) mutations are random and directionless which cause Evolution.
Explanation: Theories of Evolution explain how species change over time. One early theory proposed that organisms change in response to environmental needs, with traits acquired during an organism’s lifetime being passed to offspring. This concept was based on the idea that use or disuse of organs leads to their development or reduction over generations. Although later replaced by modern evolutionary theory, it played a key role in shaping early biological thinking. Evolutionary biology now explains inheritance through genetic variation and mutation rather than acquired characteristics. Understanding historical theories helps trace the development of modern evolutionary concepts.
Option b – Evolution of life forms had occurred but was driven by the use and disuse of organs.
The most serious and fatal type of malaria is caused by
(A) P. falciparum
(B) P.vivax
(C) P.malaria
(D) all of these
Explanation: Malaria is a parasitic Disease caused by Plasmodium species and transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Different species of the parasite cause varying severity of illness. Some strains lead to mild fever, while others can cause severe complications affecting multiple organs. The life cycle of the parasite involves both mosquito and human hosts, with complex stages of development. Understanding the species responsible for severe malaria is crucial for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies. Disease severity depends on parasite virulence, host immunity, and timely medical intervention.
Option a – P. falciparum
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around ……… ml O₂ to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.
(A) 5
(B) 25
(C) 45
(D) 65
Explanation: Oxygen Transport in blood depends on hemoglobin’s ability to bind and release oxygen efficiently as blood circulates between lungs and tissues. Oxygen is carried mainly in combination with hemoglobin inside red blood cells, while a small fraction is dissolved in plasma. As blood reaches tissues, oxygen dissociation occurs due to lower partial pressure of oxygen, higher carbon dioxide concentration, and lower pH in active tissues. This difference in oxygen content between arterial and venous blood determines how much oxygen is actually delivered to cells. Under normal physiological conditions, tissues extract only a portion of the total oxygen carried, ensuring a reserve capacity for increased demand during exercise or stress. Understanding this mechanism is essential for interpreting respiratory efficiency, metabolic activity, and oxygen utilization in the human body.
Option a – 5
Which of the following statement INCORRECT?
(A) Homo sapiens arose during the ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago.
(B) The fossils of Homo erectus were discovered in Java in 1891.
(C) Homo habilis was known as the first human-like hominid.
(D) The primate Dryopithecus was more man-like.
Explanation: Human Evolution involves a sequence of hominid species with increasing brain size, tool use, and behavioral complexity. Fossil records from different geographical regions provide evidence for the appearance and disappearance of various ancestral forms. Species like early Homo forms show gradual development of characteristics that distinguish modern humans, including upright posture and advanced cognition. The timing of these evolutionary events is reconstructed using fossil dating techniques and comparative Anatomy. Misinterpretations often arise when timelines or species characteristics are incorrectly matched or when ancestral traits are confused with modern human features. Understanding evolutionary History requires integrating fossil evidence with genetic and archaeological findings.
Option d – The primate Dryopithecus was more man-like.
In which of the following organ immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes?
(A) Spleen
(B) Lymph nodes
(C) Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
(D) Thymus
Explanation: The immune system involves the development and maturation of lymphocytes that are responsible for recognizing and responding to pathogens. Immature lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid organs and undergo a process of maturation where they acquire the ability to specifically recognize antigens. This maturation process ensures that only functional and self-tolerant immune cells are released into circulation. Once mature, these lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs where they become activated upon encountering specific antigens. Understanding this differentiation process is essential for studying immune responses, vaccination, and immune disorders.
Option d – Thymus
The diffusion membrane is made of these three layers,
(A) squamous epithelium
(B) endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(C) basement substance in between squamous epithelium and endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(D) cuboidal epithelium
Explanation: Gas exchange in the lungs occurs through a highly specialized respiratory membrane that allows rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood. This membrane is extremely thin to minimize diffusion distance and maximize efficiency. It consists of multiple structural layers that together form the barrier between alveolar air and capillary blood. Each layer plays a role in maintaining structural integrity while allowing efficient gas movement. The efficiency of gas exchange depends on surface area, thickness of the membrane, and partial pressure gradients. Any increase in membrane thickness or reduction in surface area can impair respiratory efficiency and lead to breathing disorders.
Option d – cuboidal epithelium
Read the following statements and select the correct option. i. In allopatric speciation, the original Population. becomes separated spatially because of geographical barriers, into two or more groups. ii. Geographical isolation occurs when the original Population is separated into two or more groups by geographical barriers. iii. Temporal isolation occurs due to environmental factors like photoperiod, temperature, and humidity. iv. Spatial isolation occurs due to differences in the morphological structures of reproductive organs.
(A) i,ii and iv are correct.
(B) ii and iii are incorrect.
(C) i and iii are incorrect.
(D) i, ii and iii are correct.
Explanation: Speciation occurs when populations become reproductively isolated and evolve into distinct species. This isolation can occur through geographical separation or through reproductive barriers that prevent gene flow between populations. Different types of isolation include physical separation, differences in breeding time, and structural incompatibility. These mechanisms reduce or eliminate interbreeding, allowing populations to accumulate genetic differences over time. Evolutionary biology uses these concepts to explain how new species arise and how Biodiversity is maintained. Understanding isolation mechanisms is essential for interpreting evolutionary processes and Population divergence.
Option d – i, ii and iii are correct.
Which of the following plants dominated the Jurassic period?
(A) Ginkgos
(B) Progymnosperms
(C) Conifers
(D) Sphenopsoids
Explanation: Geological time periods are characterized by distinct dominant plant and Animal groups that reflect evolutionary progress and environmental conditions. The Jurassic period is known for the dominance of specific gymnosperm groups that thrived under the prevailing Climate conditions. These plants were well adapted to terrestrial environments and played a major role in forming ancient forests. Studying fossil records helps reconstruct past ecosystems and understand how plant life has changed over millions of years. Evolutionary transitions in plant dominance are closely linked to climatic shifts and adaptive innovations.
Option c – Conifers
Which of the following is a feature of Neanderthal man?
(A) Used hides to protect their body
(B) Cranial capacity 900cc
(C) Hunted with stone weapons
(D) Did not eat meat
Explanation: Human Evolution includes several extinct hominid species that show varying degrees of anatomical and cultural development. Neanderthals were an advanced hominid group with distinct skeletal features and evidence of tool use and cultural behavior. Fossil records indicate they had adaptations suited to cold climates and engaged in hunting and survival strategies using tools. Their cranial capacity was relatively large compared to earlier hominids, indicating significant brain development. Studying Neanderthals helps understand the evolutionary relationship between modern humans and ancient human relatives.
Option a – Used hides to protect their body
A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(A) ELISA
(B) Widal test
(C) Computed tomography
(D) Magnetic resonance imaging
Explanation: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome is caused by a virus that attacks the immune system, particularly helper T cells. Early detection of infection is crucial for managing Disease progression and preventing transmission. Diagnostic tests are designed to detect either antibodies produced by the immune system or viral components in the blood. One of the most commonly used screening methods is based on antigen-antibody reactions that indicate the presence of infection. Understanding diagnostic techniques is important in medical biology as it helps in Disease surveillance, early treatment, and public Health management.
Option a – ELISA
The solubility of CO₂ in the blood is ………. times higher than that of O₂.
(A) 10-15
(B) 20-25
(C) 80-90
(D) 40-50
Explanation: Gas Transport in blood depends on the physical properties of gases, including their solubility and affinity for hemoglobin. Carbon dioxide is much more soluble in plasma compared to oxygen, allowing it to be transported more efficiently in dissolved form as well as in chemically bound forms like bicarbonate. Oxygen, on the other hand, relies heavily on hemoglobin binding for Transport. This difference in solubility plays a key role in respiratory gas exchange and maintains efficient removal of metabolic waste gases from tissues. Understanding gas solubility helps explain respiratory physiology and the efficiency of oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange in Living Organisms.
Option b – 20-25
Select the mismatch. ( Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 NEET Questions )
(A) Industrial melanism – Melanised moths
(B) Adaptive radiation – Darwin’s finches
(C) Homologous organs – Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(D) Intra-specific struggle – Struggle between sheep, horse, and cow
Explanation: Evolutionary biology explains how organisms change over time through mechanisms such as natural selection, adaptation, and genetic variation. Different evolutionary concepts describe relationships between structures, species, and environmental pressures. Some structures share a common evolutionary origin while others arise independently due to similar functional needs. Misinterpretations often occur when unrelated biological concepts are incorrectly paired or when evolutionary terms are mismatched with examples. Understanding homologous and analogous structures, as well as patterns of adaptation, is essential for correctly interpreting evolutionary relationships and Biological Classification.
Option d – Intra-specific struggle – Struggle between sheep, horse, and cow
Identify the CORRECT statement.
(A) Antibody-bound mast cells release histamine and serotonin.
(B) When a person is exposed to allergens, his body secretes IgM.
(C) Adrenaline and steroids cannot be used to reduce the symptoms of allergy.
(D) Allergies are contagious.
Explanation: Allergic reactions are hypersensitive immune responses triggered when the immune system reacts excessively to harmless substances called allergens. These reactions involve specific immune cells that recognize allergens and release chemical mediators responsible for symptoms like inflammation, itching, and respiratory distress. Mast cells play a key role by releasing substances such as histamine, which causes blood vessels to dilate and increases permeability. Antibodies of a specific class bind to allergens and activate these immune cells upon re-exposure. Allergies are not infectious and cannot spread from one person to another. Treatment strategies often include antihistamines, corticosteroids, or desensitization therapies to control immune overreaction. Understanding allergy mechanisms helps distinguish between protective immunity and harmful hypersensitivity responses.
Option a – Antibody-bound mast cells release histamine and serotonin.
The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a normal expiration is
(A) total lung capacity
(B) functional residual capacity
(C) vital capacity
(D) inspiratory capacity
Explanation: Pulmonary ventilation involves inhalation and exhalation processes that move air in and out of the lungs. Even after normal exhalation, a certain amount of air remains trapped in the lungs to prevent lung collapse and maintain continuous gas exchange. This residual air ensures that oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange can occur even between breaths. Lung volumes are categorized based on their function in breathing mechanics and include combinations of tidal, inspiratory, and residual components. Understanding these volumes is essential for studying respiratory physiology and diagnosing lung disorders. measurement of these volumes helps assess lung Health and efficiency of gas exchange in clinical settings.
Option b – functional residual capacity
During inspiration ( Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 NEET Questions )
(A) intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure.
(B) intra-pulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.
(C) diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax.
(D) diaphragm contracts and intercostal muscles relax.
Explanation: Inspiration is the process of drawing air into the lungs, driven by changes in thoracic cavity volume and pressure differences between the Atmosphere and lungs. This process involves coordinated action of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, which expand the chest cavity. As the thoracic volume increases, pressure inside the lungs decreases below atmospheric pressure, allowing air to flow inward. The mechanics of breathing depend on elastic properties of lung tissue and surface tension within alveoli. Proper functioning of respiratory muscles is essential for efficient ventilation and oxygen uptake. Any disruption in muscle coordination or pressure gradients can impair breathing efficiency.
Option b – intra-pulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.
How many phenotypes are produced in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross of a pea plant?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
Explanation: A dihybrid cross involves inheritance of two different traits, each controlled by separate gene pairs. During gamete formation, alleles segregate independently, leading to various combinations in offspring. In the F2 generation, recombination of these gametes produces multiple phenotypic combinations based on dominant and recessive interactions. Mendelian Genetics explains how independent assortment leads to predictable ratios of traits in offspring. Studying such crosses helps understand genetic variation, inheritance patterns, and probability in biological systems. This principle forms the basis for classical Genetics and is widely used in plant breeding and genetic analysis.
Option c – 4
The number of ATP and NADPH molecules formed during the Calvin cycle are
(A) 18;12
(B) 6;6
(C) 0;0
(D) 18;18
Explanation: The Calvin cycle is a series of biochemical reactions in photosynthesis that occur in the chloroplast stroma and use energy derived from Light reactions. It involves carbon fixation, reduction, and regeneration phases, where carbon dioxide is converted into carbohydrates. ATP provides energy for phosphorylation steps, while NADPH supplies reducing power for converting intermediates into sugar molecules. The cycle operates in a cyclic manner, requiring a balance of energy input and regeneration of acceptor molecules. Understanding this pathway is essential for studying photosynthetic efficiency and plant metabolism.
Option c – 0;0
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding the law of segregation.
(A) It explains that the members of the allelic pair show blending.
(B) It explains that in a pair of dissimilar factors, one of the alleles is not expressed at all.
(C) It explains that two alleles for contrasting characters do not blend but segregate or separate out during gamete formation.
(D) It explains that only one of the parental characters is expressed in a monohybrid cross.
Explanation: Mendelian Genetics describes how traits are inherited through discrete units called alleles. The law of segregation explains how allele pairs separate during gamete formation, ensuring that each gamete receives only one allele for a trait. This separation occurs during meiosis and results in genetic variation in offspring. The principle does not involve blending of traits but rather independent distribution of alleles. Understanding this law is fundamental for interpreting inheritance patterns, predicting offspring ratios, and studying genetic variation in populations. It forms the basis of classical genetic theory.
Option c – It explains that two alleles for contrasting characters do not blend but segregate or separate out during gamete formation.
Consider one turn of the Calvin cycle and select the INCORRECT statement.
(A) During the carboxylation step of the Calvin cycle, 2 molecules of 3-PGA are formed.
(B) The reduction step of the Calvin cycle involves the utilization of 2 molecules of ATP for the phosphorylation of 3-PGA.
(C) The reduction step of the Calvin cycle involves the utilization of 2 molecules of NADPH for the reduction of per CO₂ Molecule fixed.
(D) The regeneration step of the Calvin cycle requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Explanation: The Calvin cycle is a cyclic biochemical pathway that fixes carbon dioxide into Organic molecules using energy from ATP and NADPH. It consists of three major stages: carboxylation, reduction, and regeneration. During carboxylation, carbon dioxide is incorporated into a five-carbon compound to form unstable intermediates that quickly split into smaller molecules. The reduction phase uses ATP and NADPH to convert these molecules into higher-energy sugars, while the regeneration phase restores the initial carbon acceptor Molecule. Each step is tightly regulated to maintain metabolic balance in plants. Understanding these steps is essential for studying photosynthetic carbon fixation and plant energy metabolism.
Option d – The regeneration step of the Calvin cycle requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Which of the following is NOT true with respect to Respiration?
(A) is an energy-liberating process.
(B) Respiration is an enzymatically controlled process.
(C) It involves the breakdown of sugar in a stepwise manner.
(D) In Respiration, ATP is formed in one large oxidation reaction.
Explanation: Cellular Respiration is a biochemical process in which glucose and other Organic molecules are broken down to release energy in the form of ATP. It occurs in multiple stages including glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron Transport chain. The process is enzymatically controlled and proceeds in a stepwise manner to efficiently capture energy. Instead of a single burst of energy release, Respiration distributes energy release across several reactions to prevent loss as Heat. Understanding Respiration requires knowledge of metabolic pathways and energy transformation in living cells.
Option d – In Respiration, ATP is formed in one large oxidation reaction.
Human height and skin color is an examples of
(A) Multiple allelism
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) Pleiotropy
Explanation: Inheritance of traits in humans can follow different genetic patterns depending on the number of genes involved. Some traits are controlled by multiple genes that collectively influence a single phenotype, leading to continuous variation in populations. These traits do not follow simple Mendelian ratios and instead show a range of phenotypes influenced by additive gene effects. Environmental factors can also contribute to the expression of such traits. Understanding this type of inheritance is important for studying human variation, evolution, and Population Genetics.
Option b – Polygenic inheritance
Which of the following is energy yielding reaction in glycolysis?
(A) Glucose to glucose -6- phosphate
(B) Fructose -6- phosphate to Fructose-1, 6- bisphosphate
(C) 2-Phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvic Acid
Explanation: Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate while generating ATP and NADH. It consists of energy investment and energy payoff phases. In the later stages, high-energy intermediates are converted into lower-energy products with the release of energy that is captured as ATP. This stepwise breakdown ensures efficient energy extraction from glucose. Understanding glycolysis is fundamental to cellular metabolism because it provides energy under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions. It also links to other metabolic pathways such as fermentation and aerobic Respiration.
Option d – Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvic Acid
The first stable compound of the C3 pathway is
(A) Triose phosphate
(B) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
(D) Oxalo Acetic Acid
Explanation: Photosynthesis in C3 plants involves the Calvin cycle, where carbon dioxide is fixed into Organic molecules. The initial fixation product is a three-carbon compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with a five-carbon acceptor Molecule. This reaction is catalyzed by a key enzyme and represents the first stable intermediate in the pathway. The compound then undergoes further reduction and conversion into sugars using ATP and NADPH from the Light reactions. Understanding this step is essential for studying plant carbon fixation mechanisms and photosynthetic efficiency.
Option c – 3-Phosphoglycerate
The first and last stages of aerobic Respiration are ……… respectively.
(A) Fermentation and Terminal oxidation
(B) Glycolysis and ETS
(C) Oxidative decarboxylation and Krebs’ cycle
(D) Krebs’ cycle and Glycolysis
Explanation: Aerobic respiration is a stepwise metabolic process in which glucose is broken down to release energy in the form of ATP. It occurs through a sequence of coordinated stages located in different parts of the cell, beginning with the breakdown of glucose into smaller molecules and ending with complete oxidation of intermediates in a cyclic pathway. Each stage plays a distinct role in energy extraction, ensuring that energy is not released in a single uncontrolled burst but captured efficiently in usable forms. The process involves electron carriers, enzyme-controlled reactions, and gradual release of energy. Understanding the order of respiratory stages is essential for linking glycolysis, mitochondrial oxidation processes, and overall ATP production in living cells.
Option b – Glycolysis and ETS
Complete the given analogy with respect to the number of ATP formed during ETS. One Molecule of NADH+H : 3 ATP :: One Molecule of FADH₂ : ……..
(A) 4 ATP
(B) 1 ATP
(C) 8 ATP
(D) 2 ATP
Explanation: The electron Transport system is the final stage of aerobic respiration where electrons from reduced coenzymes are transferred through a series of protein complexes located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. This electron flow releases energy that is used to generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Different electron carriers contribute different amounts of energy because they enter the Transport chain at different points. NADH and FADH₂ donate electrons at distinct complexes, leading to variation in ATP yield. The process is driven by proton gradients formed across the membrane, which powers ATP synthase. Understanding this relationship is important for comparing energy efficiency of different metabolic pathways and interpreting cellular energy budgets.
Option d – 2 ATP
Select the CORRECT statement with respect to Hatch and Slack pathway.
(A) C4 Acid is broken down in bundle sheath cells to release CO₂ and 3-carbon molecules.
(B) The Primary CO₂ acceptor is located in the bundle sheath cell.
(C) Malic Acid or aspartic Acid is formed in bundle sheath cells.
(D) Hatch and Slack pathway involves only the C4 cycle and not the C3 cycle.
Explanation: The Hatch and Slack pathway is a specialized photosynthetic adaptation found in certain plants that enhances carbon fixation efficiency in hot and dry environments. It involves spatial separation of initial carbon fixation and the Calvin cycle between two types of cells. Carbon dioxide is initially fixed into a four-carbon compound in mesophyll cells and later transported to bundle sheath cells where it is released for use in the Calvin cycle. This system reduces photorespiration and increases efficiency under conditions where oxygen concentration might otherwise interfere with carbon fixation. Understanding this pathway is important for distinguishing between different photosynthetic strategies and their ecological significance.
Option a – C4 Acid is broken down in bundle sheath cells to release CO₂ and 3-carbon molecules.
The respiratory quotient is the ratio of
(A) Volume of oxygen consumed/Volume of carbon dioxide evolved
(B) Volume of carbon dioxide consumed/Volume of oxygen evolved
(C) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved/Volume of oxygen consumed
(D) Volume of oxygen evolved/Volume of carbon dioxide consumed
Explanation: Respiration involves the oxidation of Food substances to release energy, and during this process, gases are exchanged between organisms and the Environment. The efficiency and nature of respiratory substrates can be analyzed by comparing the volume of gases consumed and released. Different substrates such as carbohydrates, fats, and proteins produce different gas exchange patterns. The respiratory quotient provides insight into which type of substrate is being metabolized and the completeness of oxidation. This concept is widely used in physiology to understand metabolic rates, energy utilization, and the nature of biochemical pathways involved in respiration.
Option c – Volume of carbon dioxide evolved/Volume of oxygen consumed
Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to photorespiration.
(A) In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. that increases
(B) C4 plants have a mechanism for the concentration of CO₂ in bundle sheath cells
(C) Due to more concentration of CO₂ in bundle sheath cells, RuBisCO functions as an oxygenase.
(D) Photorespiration is considered a wasteful process in C3 plants.
Explanation: Photorespiration is a process in plants that occurs when oxygen competes with carbon dioxide during carbon fixation, leading to a reduction in photosynthetic efficiency. It is influenced by environmental conditions such as temperature and carbon dioxide concentration. Certain plant groups have developed mechanisms to minimize its effects by concentrating carbon dioxide in specific cells, thereby improving the efficiency of photosynthesis. This process is generally considered wasteful because it leads to the loss of previously fixed carbon without producing energy-rich compounds. Understanding photorespiration is important for studying plant productivity and adaptations to environmental stress.
Option c – Due to more concentration of CO₂ in bundle sheath cells, RuBisCO functions as an oxygenase.
Select the INCORRECT statement/s about aerobic respiration. i. It requires pyruvic Acid which is a final product of glycolysis. ii. It results in the incomplete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water. iii. It takes place in the cytosol. iv. It requires oxygen for its function.
(A) i. and iv.
(B) ii, iii. and iv.
(C) ii. and iii.
(D) i. and ii.
Explanation: Aerobic respiration is a multi-step process involving glycolysis in the cytoplasm followed by mitochondrial pathways that completely oxidize glucose into carbon dioxide and water. It begins with the breakdown of glucose into smaller intermediates, which are then further processed through cyclic and electron Transport mechanisms. Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron Transport chain, enabling efficient ATP production. The process is highly regulated and occurs in distinct cellular locations rather than a single site. Understanding the sequence and completeness of oxidation is essential for interpreting metabolic efficiency and cellular energy production.
Option c – ii. and iii.
Read the given statements with reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis. (i) C3 and C4 plants respond differently to CO₂ concentration. (ii) Increasing atmospheric CO₂ concentration beyond 0.07% can enhance the CO₂ fixation rate. (iii) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum. The correct statement/s is/are
(A) Statement (i) and (iii)
(B) Statement (ii)
(C) Statement (i)
(D) All the given statements are correct
Explanation: Photosynthesis is influenced by environmental factors such as carbon dioxide concentration, temperature, and plant type. Different plant groups respond differently to changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels due to variations in their biochemical pathways. Some plants are more efficient under high temperatures, while others perform better under cooler conditions. Carbon dioxide concentration directly affects the rate of carbon fixation up to a saturation point beyond which other factors become limiting. Understanding these relationships is essential for studying plant productivity, agricultural yield, and ecosystem responses to Climate change.
Option c – Statement (i)
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the process of respiration?
(A) 2 PGAL during glycolysis and none of the PGAL are produced in Krebs’ cycle
(B) 4 PGAL during glycolysis and 4 Pyruvic Acids are produced in Krebs’ cycle
(C) 2 Pyruvic Acids are produced in Krebs’ cycle and none of the PGAL is produced during glycolysis.
(D) PGAL is not produced during respiratory events.
Explanation: Cellular respiration involves multiple stages where intermediate compounds are formed and broken down to release energy. These stages occur in different cellular locations and involve various metabolic intermediates. Glycolysis produces key three-carbon intermediates that are further processed in mitochondrial pathways. The Krebs cycle and electron transport system continue the breakdown process, leading to ATP generation. Understanding the flow of metabolites between stages is crucial for interpreting how energy is extracted from glucose and other substrates in Living Organisms.
Option a – 2 PGAL during glycolysis and none of the PGAL are produced in Krebs’ cycle
CO₂ enters the photosynthetic pathway during …….. reaction, which occurs in ………..
(A) Light reaction, grana
(B) dark reaction, stroma
(C) photosystem I, thylakoid membrane
(D) photosystem II, grana
Explanation: Photosynthesis consists of two major phases: Light-dependent reactions and Light-independent reactions. Carbon dioxide is incorporated into Organic molecules during the carbon fixation stage, which occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts. This stage is part of a cyclic pathway where carbon dioxide is converted into energy-rich compounds using ATP and reducing power generated in the Light reactions. The separation of stages within chloroplast compartments ensures efficient regulation of photosynthesis. Understanding this process is essential for studying plant metabolism and energy conversion in autotrophic organisms.
Option b – dark reaction, stroma
When fatty Acid tripalmitin is used as a respiratory substrate, RQ is
(A) always zero
(B) always less than 1
(C) always more than 1
(D) always 0.2
Explanation: The respiratory quotient varies depending on the type of substrate being oxidized during cellular respiration. Different Biomolecules such as carbohydrates, fats, and proteins have distinct chemical compositions and oxygen requirements for complete oxidation. Fatty Acids contain a higher proportion of hydrogen and require more oxygen for breakdown compared to carbohydrates. As a result, their oxidation produces a different gas exchange ratio. Understanding these variations helps in determining metabolic fuel usage and energy efficiency in organisms under different physiological conditions.
Option b – always less than 1
Which of the following is INCORRECT in the case of individuals suffering from Turner’s syndrome?
(A) They possess 47 chromosomes instead of 46.
(B) The individuals with this syndrome are phenotypically female.
(C) These individuals have short stature, webbed neck, and low posterior hairline.
(D) These individuals show abnormal sexual development.
Explanation: Chromosomal disorders arise due to abnormalities in the number or structure of chromosomes, affecting normal growth and development. Turner’s syndrome is a condition associated with sex chromosome abnormality in females, leading to characteristic physical and reproductive features. It results from the absence or structural alteration of one X chromosome, which affects ovarian development and secondary sexual characteristics. Individuals with this condition typically show distinct phenotypic traits such as short stature and delayed sexual maturation. However, the total chromosome count and sex chromosome pattern must be carefully interpreted, as normal human cells contain a specific diploid number. Misinterpretations often occur when chromosome numbers or sex determination patterns are confused. Understanding chromosomal disorders requires knowledge of karyotyping, genetic inheritance, and the role of sex chromosomes in human development.
Option a – They possess 47 chromosomes instead of 46.
C4 plants differ from C3 plants due to the presence of ( Chapter 1 Biology Class 11 NEET Questions )
(A) kranz Anatomy
(B) bundle sheath cells
(C) PEP as primary CO₂ acceptor
(D) all of these
Explanation: Photosynthetic pathways in plants vary based on adaptations to environmental conditions such as temperature and carbon dioxide availability. C3 plants use the Calvin cycle directly for carbon fixation, while C4 plants have an additional mechanism that concentrates carbon dioxide before it enters the Calvin cycle. This adaptation improves efficiency in hot and dry environments by reducing wasteful oxygenation reactions. Structural and biochemical differences exist between these plant types, including specialized leaf Anatomy and distinct enzyme systems for initial carbon fixation. These adaptations help C4 plants maintain higher photosynthetic rates under stress conditions. Understanding these differences is important for studying plant Ecology, productivity, and evolutionary adaptation.
Option d – all of these
Enzyme/s mainly involved in during formation of yogurt is/are
(A) Pyruvic Acid dehydrogenase
(B) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(C) Lactate dehydrogenase
(D) both (A) and (C)
Explanation: Fermentation is a metabolic process in which microorganisms convert Organic substrates into simpler compounds, often producing energy in the absence of oxygen. In dairy fermentation, specific bacteria act on milk components, converting lactose into lactic acid. This process changes the texture, flavor, and acidity of milk, resulting in yogurt formation. Enzymes produced by these bacteria catalyze biochemical reactions that break down sugars and promote acidification. The accumulation of lactic acid leads to protein coagulation, giving yogurt its characteristic consistency. Understanding microbial fermentation is important in Food Biotechnology and industrial microbiology, as it explains how microorganisms are used in Food production and preservation.
Option c – Lactate dehydrogenase
In pea plants, what is the probability of the formation of the ‘Yr’ gamete in a dihybrid cross (YYRR x yyrr)?
(A) 25%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
Explanation: Genetic inheritance in dihybrid crosses involves the segregation and independent assortment of alleles during gamete formation. When two traits are considered, each gene pair separates independently into gametes, producing combinations of alleles. The parental genotypes determine the type of gametes formed in the F1 generation, which is heterozygous for both traits. During gamete formation, each allele pair segregates so that each gamete receives one allele from each gene pair. This results in multiple possible gamete types depending on the combination of alleles inherited. Understanding these principles is essential for predicting inheritance patterns and applying Mendelian Genetics to biological problems involving probability and trait distribution.
Option a – 25%
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