Quick Quiz
Questions ▼
EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions. We covered all the EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
Install our MCQTUBE Android App from the Google Play Store and prepare for any competitive government exams for free.
These types of competitive mcqs appear in exams like SSC CGL, CHSL, JE, MTS, Stenographer, CPO, Railway Group-D, NTPC, ALP, JE, RPF, Tech, Bank, Delhi Police Constable, UP Lekhpal, dsssb, DDA ASO, BPSC Teaching, Defence, UPSSSC, UPSC (Pre), UPP, SI, UPTET, UPPCS, BPSC, BSSC, SBI, IBPS, LIC, State PCS, CDS, NDA, Assistant Commandant, and other Competitive Examinations, etc.
We created all the competitive exam mcqs into several small posts on our website for your convenience.
You will get their respective links in the related posts section provided below.
Related Posts:
EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions for Students
Which statement is incorrect regarding the Government of India Act, 1919?
A) The Government of India Act of 1919 became operative in the year 1921
B) The Act is popularly referred to as the Morley–Minto Reforms
C) Montagu served as the Secretary of State for India while Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy
D) The Act introduced a division between Central and Provincial subjects
Option b – The Act is popularly referred to as the Morley–Minto Reforms
In which year were the Fundamental Duties added to the Indian Constitution?
A) 1975
B) 1976
C) 1978
D) 1979
Option b – 1976
What is the term of office of the Central Information Commissioner?
A) Five years or until attaining the age of sixty-two years
B) Six years or until attaining the age of sixty-five years
C) Five years or until attaining the age of sixty-five years
D) Six years or until attaining the age of sixty-two years
Option c – Five years or until attaining the age of sixty-five years
After receiving a complaint, against which of the following office bearers is the Rajasthan Lokayukta not empowered to investigate?
A) Pradhan and Up-Pradhan of Panchayat Samitis
B) Chairman of the Standing Committee of Panchayat Samitis
C) Sarpanch and Panch
D) Up-Pramukh of Zila Parishad
Option c – Sarpanch and Panch
Under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution, how does the President of India address Parliament?
A) In a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament
B) In a joint meeting of the two Houses of Parliament
C) In a joint session of both Houses of Parliament
D) When both Houses of Parliament assemble together
Option d – When both Houses of Parliament assemble together
Which of the following statements about the office of the Vice-President of India is incorrect?
A) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B) The election follows the system of proportional representation using the single transferable vote
C) The Vice-President cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or of any State Legislature
D) The Vice-President functions as the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and does not hold any office of profit
Option a – The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament
Which statement related to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct?
A) Every group of citizens has the right to preserve its language, script, or Culture
B) No Citizen can be refused admission to State-maintained or State-aided educational institutions on grounds of religion, race, or language
C) While granting aid, the State may discriminate against educational institutions managed by the majority community
D) Religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
Option c – While granting aid, the State may discriminate against educational institutions managed by the majority community
Which of the following statements concerning protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 is incorrect?
A) A person who is arrested must be informed of the reasons for such arrest
B) An arrested person has the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of choice
C) Every arrested individual must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within one week of arrest
D) Protection against arrest does not apply to persons detained under a judicial order
Option c – Every arrested individual must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within one week of arrest
Which statement related to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?
A) The provisions in Part IV of the Constitution are not enforceable by courts
B) The Directive Principles play a fundamental role in the governance of the country
C) The State is expected to apply these principles while framing laws
D) The Directive Principles aim at transforming India into an advanced capitalist nation
Option d – The Directive Principles aim at transforming India into an advanced capitalist nation
Which of the following intellectual property rights does not require registration for protection?
A) Copyright
B) Patent
C) Industrial design
D) Trademark
Option a – Copyright
Which statement regarding the freedom to manage religious affairs under the Constitution of India is incorrect?
A) Every religious denomination has the right to manage its religious affairs, except certain minor communities
B) Every religion or section thereof has the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property
C) All religious communities have the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
D) Every community is entitled to manage its own affairs in matters of religion
Option a – Every religious denomination has the right to manage its religious affairs, except certain minor communities
Which constitutional authority is responsible for resolving doubts and disputes related to the election of the President and Vice-President of India?
A) Supreme Court of India
B) Election Commission of India
C) Parliamentary Committee
D) High Court of Delhi
Option a – Supreme Court of India
Which of the following best explains the basic principle of the Cabinet form of government?
A) A system designed to reduce criticism against a government handling complex responsibilities
B) A mechanism meant to accelerate governmental functioning
C) A parliamentary framework that ensures collective responsibility of the government to the people
D) A method to consolidate power in the hands of the head of government
Option c – A parliamentary framework that ensures collective responsibility of the government to the people
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Indian federalism?
A) Presence of an independent Judiciary
B) Clear division of powers between the Centre and the States
C) Unequal representation of States in the Rajya Sabha
D) Formation based on an agreement among federating units
Option d – Formation based on an agreement among federating units
In the Indian context, what does judicial review mean?
A) Authority of the Judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions
B) power of the Judiciary to assess the wisdom of laws passed by legislatures
C) Authority to scrutinize all laws before they receive presidential assent
D) power of the Judiciary to reconsider its earlier decisions in similar or different cases
Option a – Authority of the Judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions
Who is eligible to submit a nomination paper for contesting elections to the Lok Sabha?
A) Any individual living anywhere in India
B) A person residing in the constituency from which the election is contested
C) Any Indian Citizen whose name is registered in the electoral roll of any constituency
D) Any Citizen of India
Option c – Any Indian Citizen whose name is registered in the electoral roll of any constituency
The right to vote and the right to contest elections in India are classified as
B) Natural Rights
C) Constitutional Rights
D) Legal Rights
Option c – Constitutional Rights
Which body first suggested the appointment of a Lokayukta at the State level?
A) Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee
B) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
D) Santhanam Committee
Option b – Administrative Reforms Commission of India
The Governor of Rajasthan serves as the Chancellor of
A) All State Universities
B) All State and Central Universities located in the State
C) All State Universities along with Private Universities in the State
D) All State Universities, Central Universities, and Private Universities in the State
Option a – All State Universities
The State Election Commission of Rajasthan is regarded as
A) A statutory body
B) An executive body
C) A constitutional body
D) A subordinate unit of the Election Commission of India
Option c – A constitutional body
On which date was the Rajasthan Information Commission established?
A) 18 April 2008
B) 18 April 2006
C) 18 April 2007
D) 18 April 2005
Option b – 18 April 2006
In which case did the Supreme Court of India lay down the doctrine of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
A) Golaknath Case
B) Kesavananda Bharati Case
C) Shankari Prasad Case
D) Sajjan Singh Case
Option b – Kesavananda Bharati Case
Under which list of the Constitution do Panchayati Raj subjects fall?
A) Union List
B) State List
C) Concurrent List
D) None of the above
Option b – State List
Which of the following is no longer treated as a valid ground for declaring a National Emergency?
A) Armed rebellion
B) External aggression
C) Internal disturbance
D) War
Option c – Internal disturbance
Judicial scrutiny of a Proclamation issued under Article 356 can be undertaken on which ground?
A) The decision is based on irrelevant or extraneous considerations
B) The power under Article 356 has been exercised in bad faith
C) The proclamation lacks bona fide intent
D) All of the above
Option d – All of the above
A resolution approving a Proclamation of Emergency must be passed
A) By either House of Parliament
B) By the Lok Sabha alone
C) By both Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting
D) Separately by each House of Parliament with the prescribed special majority
Option d – Separately by each House of Parliament with the prescribed special majority
The finance Commission of India is composed of
A) A Chairman and three additional members
B) A Chairman and four additional members
C) Four full-time members
D) Five members
Option b – A Chairman and four additional members
Which part of the Indian Constitution embodies the concept of a Welfare State? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
A) Directive Principles of State Policy
C) Preamble
D) Seventh Schedule
Option a – Directive Principles of State Policy
Parliament can make laws on subjects included in all three lists in relation to ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
A) Backward areas
B) Hill areas
C) Scheduled areas
D) Union Territories
Option d – Union Territories
Which Constitutional Amendment clarified that Article 13 does not apply to amendments made under Article 368? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
A) 22nd Amendment
B) 24th Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Option b – 24th Amendment
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment did not ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
A) Insert the terms socialist, secular, and integrity into the Preamble
B) Introduce Fundamental Duties
C) Remove the right to property from Article 19
D) Make changes to Article 353 concerning Emergency provisions
Option c – Remove the right to property from Article 19
Which of the following was not included in Part IV of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
A) Provision of free legal aid to economically weaker sections
B) Participation of workers in the management of industries
C) Protection and improvement of the Environment
D) Organisation of Village Panchayats
Option d – Organisation of Village Panchayats
Ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures is required for a Constitutional Amendment affecting ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
B) Directive Principles of State Policy
D) Provisions related to the federal structure
Option d – Provisions related to the federal structure
Which Constitutional Amendment enabled the State to impose reasonable restrictions on Article 19 in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year mcq with Solutions )
A) 15th Amendment
B) 16th Amendment
C) 17th Amendment
D) Such power was never granted to the State
Option b – 16th Amendment
The Union Public Service Commission performs an advisory role in matters related to ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Methods of recruitment to civil services
B) Disciplinary issues concerning public servants
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Option c – Both of the above
The term of office of members of a State Public Service Commission is ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Five years
B) Six years
C) Ten years
D) None of the above
Option b – Six years
In which Supreme Court judgment was it stated that Articles 14, 19, and 21 operate independently but are all guided by the principle of reasonableness? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B) Jagannath v. Union of India
C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D) Swarup Delhi v. Administration
Option c – Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
On which fundamental freedom can the State impose reasonable restrictions specifically in the interest of national security? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Freedom of speech and expression
B) Freedom to assemble peacefully
C) Freedom to form associations or unions
D) Freedom of movement
Option a – Freedom of speech and expression
While placing the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament, the finance Bill is introduced to fulfill the requirement of which constitutional provision? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Article 110(1)(a)
B) Article 111(1)(a)
C) Article 112(1)(a)
D) Article 113(1)(a)
Option a – Article 110(1)(a)
From which country did the Indian Constitution adopt the federal structure of a Union of States? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) United States of America
B) Canada
C) Ireland
D) Russia
Option b – Canada
In which case did the Supreme Court rule that a constitutional amendment made under Article 368 falls within the definition of law under Article 13? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
D) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Option d – Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
The freedom of religion guaranteed by the Constitution cannot be limited on which of the following grounds? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Health
B) Morality
C) Public order
D) Security of the State
Option c – Public order
Which Constitutional Amendment Act first clarified that the term “State” in Article 3 also covers Union Territories? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) 17th Amendment
B) 18th Amendment
C) 19th Amendment
D) 20th Amendment
Option b – 18th Amendment
Under the Indian Constitution, which of the following is not expressly mentioned as a ground for restricting freedom of religion? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Health
B) Morality
C) Public order
D) Social justice
Option c – Public order
Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit which of the following practices? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Begar
B) Compulsory service for public purposes
C) Forced labour
D) Trafficking in human beings
Option b – Compulsory service for public purposes
The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was taken from which source? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Government of India Act, 1935
B) Constitution of Ireland
C) Constitution of Switzerland
D) Constitution of the United States of America
Option b – Constitution of Ireland
Who serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) President of India
B) Vice-President of India
C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D) None of the above
Option b – Vice-President of India
An Indian Citizen holding an office of profit or trust under the State may accept a title from a foreign country only with the approval of the ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Council of Ministers
B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C) Prime Minister
D) President of India
Option d – President of India
Which of the following statements about eligibility to contest the Presidential election in India is incorrect? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) The candidate must be an Indian Citizen
B) The candidate must not hold any office of profit
C) The candidate must be qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha
D) The candidate must have completed 30 years of age
Option d – The candidate must have completed 30 years of age
Fundamental Duties are provided under ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Part IV, Article 51
B) Part IVA, Article 51
C) Part V, Article 51A
D) Part IVA, Article 51A
Option d – Part IVA, Article 51A
The executive authority of a State under the Constitution is vested in the ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) People of the State
B) Chief Minister of the State
C) Governor of the State
D) State Legislature
Option c – Governor of the State
If both the President and the Vice-President of India are unable to hold office at the same time, who performs the duties of the President until a new election is held? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Leader of the majority party in Parliament
C) Senior-most Governor
D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Option a – Chief Justice of India
Which Article of the Constitution specifies the 29 subjects assigned to Panchayati Raj Institutions? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Article 243H
B) Article 243E
C) Article 243F
D) Article 243G
Option d – Article 243G
The authority of the President of India to issue ordinances is classified as which type of power? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Constituent power
B) Executive power
C) Judicial power
D) Legislative power
Option d – Legislative power
With regard to the salaries of Supreme Court Judges, which statement is correct? ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) They are determined by the President
B) They cannot be reduced under any circumstances
C) They may be reduced during their tenure
D) They cannot be reduced during their term except during a financial emergency
Option d – They cannot be reduced during their term except during a financial emergency
A motion for impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) The Council of States only
B) The House of the People only
C) Either House of Parliament
D) A joint sitting of Parliament only
Option c – Either House of Parliament
The Governor of a State may be removed from office ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) By the President at his discretion
B) Through impeachment by Parliament
C) On the advice of the Chief Minister
D) By a resolution passed with a two-thirds majority in the State Legislature
Option a – By the President at his discretion
The salary and allowances of a State Governor are charged to the ( EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions )
A) Consolidated Fund of India
B) Contingency Fund of India
C) Consolidated Fund of the State
D) Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of the State in equal shares
Option c – Consolidated Fund of the State
We covered all the EPFO APFC Previous Year MCQ with Solutions above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
Check out the latest MCQ content by visiting our mcqtube website homepage.
Also, check out:
