GRB Biology Class 11 Students Practice FREE 2025

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GRB Biology Class 11. We covered all the GRB Biology Class 11 MCQs in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.

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GRB Biology Class 11 Objective for Students

Quick Quiz

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Vitamin B12 anti anemic factor

(b) Vitamin C antiscorbutic factor

(d) Vitamin K antihaemorrhagic factor

Option c – Vitamin D anti sterility factor

Gene is:

(a) A segment of DNA

(b) A segment of DNA and histone

(d) All of the above

Option a – A segment of DNA

Which of the following diseases are caused by the consumption of water contaminated by mercury and nitrate?

(a) Minamata disease and Osteoporosis

(b) Osteoporosis and Blue Baby Syndrome

(d) Osteoporosis and Minamata disease

Option c – Minamata disease and Blue Baby Syndrome

Which one of the following elements is present in the green pigment of leaves?

(a) Magnesium

(b) Iron

(d) Copper

Option a – Magnesium

Which one of the following is a major effect of long-term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than 0.5 ppm) or no fluoride?

(a) Cavity of tooth

(b) Erosion of nail

(d) Mottling of tooth

Option c – Deformation of bone

Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains:

(a) A nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar, and phosphate group

(b) A nitrogenous base, ribose sugar, and phosphate group

(d) A nitrogenous base and phosphate group only

Option a – A nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar, and phosphate group

In a vessel containing SO3, SO₂, and O₂ at equilibrium, some helium gas is introduced so that total pressure increases while temperature and volume remain the same. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, the dissociation of SO3 ………….

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(D) cannot be predicted

Option c – remains unaltered

One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant pressure of 1 atm from 25 °C to 50 °C. The change in internal energy is ……….

(A) -49.7 cal

(B) 75.0 cal

(D) 173.9 cal

Option b – 75.0 cal

The work done to contract a gas in a cylinder is 232 J. 95 J energy is evolved in the process. What will be the internal energy change in the process?

(A) + 137 J

(B) – 220 J

(D) – 460 J

Option a – + 137 J

For a reaction, A -> B, the rate of reaction increases by a factor of 3.375 when the concentration of A is increased by 1.5 times. The order of reaction with respect to A is ………..

(A) 1

(B) 3

(D) 2.5

Option b – 3

12 moles of H₂ and 4.2 moles of I2 are mixed and allowed to attain equilibrium at 500 °C. At equilibrium, the concentration of HI is found to be 8 moles. The equilibrium constant for the formation of HI is ………..

(A) 50

(B) 40

(D) 60

Option b – 40

In Haber’s process, 30 liters of dihydrogen and 30 liters of dinitrogen were taken for the reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the simplest ratio of composition (in liter) of gaseous ammonia, nitrogen, and hydrogen respectively under the aforesaid condition at the end?

(A) 4 : 5 : 3

(B) 1 : 3 : 2

(D) 4 : 2 : 6

Option c – 2 : 5 : 3

If the volume of the gas is reduced to half from its original volume then its specific heat will ………..

(A) be doubled

(B) remain constant

(D) increase four times

Option b – remain constant

The volume of a gas decreases from 850 cc to 450 cc when a sample of gas is compressed by an average pressure of 0.5 atm. During this process, 10 J of heat is liberated. The change in internal energy is ……….

(A) – 8.44 J

(B) 30.5 J

(D) 10.26 J

Option d – 10.26 J

Calculate the work done during the compression of 4 mol of an ideal gas from a volume of 5 m³ to 50 dm³ at 300 K against a pressure of 100 kPa.

(A) -250 kJ

(B) -25.55 kJ

(D) – 4.95 kJ

Option c – + 495 kJ

For a chemical reaction at 27°C, the activation energy is 600R. The ratio of the rate constants at 327°C to that of at 27°C will be ……..

(A) 2

(B) 40

(D) e²

Option c – e

In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.6 M to 0.3 M in 20 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.2 M to 0.05 M is ………..

(A) 13.5 minutes

(B) 20 minutes

(D) 80 minutes

Option c – 40 minutes

The oxidation state of potassium in KIO3 is ………

(A) 0

(B) +1

(D) +7

Option b – +1

Identify the element that undergoes reduction. MnO₂ + 2KOH + KNO3 -> K₂MnO4 + KNO₂ + H₂O

(A) K

(B) O

(D) N

Option d – N

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement?

(A) The oxidation number of O in OF2 is +2.

(B) The oxidation number of O in Cl₂O is -2.

(D) The oxidation number of O in O3 is -2.

Option d – The oxidation number of O in O3 is -2.

In the reaction 3CuO+2NH3 → N₂+ 3H₂O + 3Cu, the change of NH3 to N₂ involves ……….

(A) loss of 6 electrons per mol of N₂

(B) loss of 3 electrons per mol of N₂

(D) gain of 3 electrons per mol of N₂

Option a – loss of 6 electrons per mol of N₂

The two complexes PtCl4.2NH3 and PtCl4.2KC do not give a precipitate of AgCl when treated with AgNO3. The formulae of these complexes are …….. respectively.

(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and K2PtCl6

(B) [Pt(NH3)2]Cl4 and K2PtCl6

(D) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and K₂[PtCl5]CI

Option a – [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and K2PtCl6

When methane is burnt in oxygen to produce CO₂ and H₂O, the oxidation number of C changes by ………. units.

(A) 0

(B) 4

(D) 8

Option d – 8

The e.m.f. of the cell Ag | Ag (0.01 M) || Ag (0.1M)| Ag at 298 K is …….

(A) 0.0059 V

(B) 0.059 V

(D) 0.59 V

Option b – 0.059 V

A lamp draws a current of 1.0 A. Find the charge in the coulomb used by the lamp in 60 s.

(A) 1 C

(B) 30 C

(D) 600 C

Option c – 60 C

In which of the following compounds, carbon exhibits a valence of 4 but an oxidation state of -2?

(A) CH3CI

(B) CHCI3

(D) HCHO

Option a – CH3Cl

Which of the following aqueous solution has the highest conductivity?

(A) 0.1 M Acetic acid solution

(B) 0.01 M Acetic acid solution

(D) 0.005 M Acetic acid solution

Option a – 0.1 M Acetic acid solution

When a lead storage battery is discharged, ………

(A) SO₂ gas is evolved

(B) lead is formed

(D) sulphuric acid is consumed

Option d – sulphuric acid is consumed

The oxidation state of iodine is negative in ………

(A) NaI

(B) ICI

(D) IF5

Option a – NaI

When 96500 coulombs of electricity are passed through nickel sulphate solution, the amount of nickel deposited will be ……..

(A) 1 mol

(B) 0.5 mol

(D) 2 mol

Option b – 0.5 mol

If four moles of electrons are transferred from anode to cathode in an experiment on the electrolysis of water, then the total volume of the two gases produced at STP will be :

(A) 224 L

(B) 72.6 L

(D) 89.4 L

Option c – 67.2 L

The oxidation number of H, S, and O in sulphurous acid is …….. respectively.

(A) +1, +7 and -2

(B) +1, +4 and -2

(D) +1, +3 and -2

Option b – +1, +4 and -2

If the salt bridge between two half cells of a galvanic cell is removed, ……….

(A) the voltage increases rapidly

(B) the voltage increases gradually

(D) the voltage drops to zero

Option d – the voltage drops to zero

For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the lowest freezing point?

(A) [Co(H₂O)6]Cl3

(B) [Co(H₂O)5CI]Cl₂.H₂O

(D) [Co(H₂O)3Cl3].3H₂O

Option a – [Co(H₂O)6]Cl3

When 0.5 mol CoCl3.4NH3 is treated with an excess of AgNO3, 0.5 mol of AgCl is obtained. The conductivity of the solution will correspond to ……..

(A) 1 : 3 electrolyte

(B) 1 : 2 electrolyte

(D) 3 : 1 electrolyte

Option c – 1 : 1 electrolyte

In the blind spot of the human eye

(A) both cones and rods are absent

(B) only cones are absent

(D) only rods are absent

Option a – both cones and rods are absent

Which is the CORRECT chronological sequence of Human evolution?

(A) Ramapithecus → Australopithecines → Homo erectus → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens

(B) Ramapithecus – Homo habilis → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus

(D) Homo habilis → Australopithecines → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

Option a – Ramapithecus → Australopithecines → Homo erectus → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens

Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the plant

(A) Cannabis sativa

(B) Atropa belladonna

(D) Papaver somniferum

Option a – Cannabis sativa

A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

(A) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

(B) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)

(D) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

Option a – 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from

(A) Bacillus subtilis

(B) Pseudomonas putida

(D) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans

Option c – Thermus aquaticus

Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons to protect non-infected cells from viral infection. Therefore, interferon is known as ………. barrier.

(A) physiological

(B) cellular

(D) cytokine

Option d – cytokine

Which one of these animals is NOT a homeotherm?

(A) Camelus

(B) Chelone

(D) Psittacula

Option b – Chelone

Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: The cells lining the villi in the small intestine have microscopic projections called microvilli. Statement II: Microscopic microvilli increase the surface area of absorption enormously.

(A) Statement I is correct, and II is wrong.

(B) Statements I and II both are wrong.

(D) Statement II is correct, and I is wrong.

Option c – Both statements are correct.

Select the CORRECT statement from the ones given below.

(A) Barbiturates, when given to criminals, make them tell the truth.

(B) Morphine is often given to persons, who have undergone surgery, as a pain killer.

(D) Cocaine is given to patents after surgery as it stimulates recovery.

Option a – Barbiturates, when given to criminals, make them tell the truth.

The stirrer is provided with a rotating shaft and blades for

(A) proper foam control

(B) proper mixing

(D) control of pH

Option b – proper mixing

Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?

(A) Fertilization of the egg is affected outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where the gestation is completed.

(B) Fertilization of the egg is affected in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a large test tube.

(D) Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo are affected in a large test tube

Option a – Fertilization of the egg is affected outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where the gestation is completed.

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do NOT specifically affect reproductive organs?

(A) Chlamydiasis and AIDS

(B) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B

(D) AIDS and Hepatitis B

Option d – AIDS and Hepatitis B

Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs

(A) as bicarbonate ions

(B) in the form of dissolved gas molecules

(D) as carbaminohaemoglobin

Option a – as bicarbonate ions

Which of the following animals are TRUE coelomates with bilateral symmetry?

(A) Annelids

(B) Adult Echinoderms

(D) Platyhelminthes

Option a – Annelids

Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?

(A) Types of diabetes-3

(B) Cervical vertebrae in humans-8

(D) Amino acids found in proteins-16

Option c – Floating ribs in humans-4

Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?

(A) Relaxin – Gigantism

(B) Prolactin – Cretinism

(D) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus

Option c – Parathyroid hormone – Tetany

The hormone relaxin, responsible for easy birth of the baby is secreted by ……….

(A) Graafian follicle

(B) Corpus callosum

(D) Corpus Albicans

Option c – Corpus luteum

How was the ‘new’ variety of Indian Basmati developed by the American company?

(A) Indian variety was continuously self-pollinated.

(B) Indian variety was crossed with pure-dwarf varieties.

(D) Indian variety was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties.

Option d – Indian variety was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties.

In human adult females oxytocin

(A) stimulates the pituitary to secrete vasopressin

(B) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition

(D) stimulates the growth of mammary glands.

Option b – causes strong uterine contractions during parturition

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