Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Vitamin B12 anti anemic factor
(b) Vitamin C antiscorbutic factor
(c) Vitamin D anti sterility factor
(d) Vitamin K antihaemorrhagic factor
Explanation: Vitamins are Organic compounds required in very small amounts for normal growth, metabolism, immunity, and maintenance of body functions. Each vitamin is associated with a particular physiological role and deficiency Disease. For example, some vitamins help in blood clotting, while others are important for vision, healthy skin, or bone formation. Scientific names such as antihaemorrhagic or antiscorbutic factor describe the Disease prevented by that vitamin. To solve this type of question, it is important to compare each vitamin with its commonly known biological role and identify the pair that does not scientifically correspond. Understanding the functions of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins helps eliminate incorrect combinations systematically. Such Questionstest conceptual memory rather than calculation skills and are frequently asked in Biology and Health science examinations.
Option c – Vitamin D anti sterility factor
Gene is:
(a) A segment of DNA
(b) A segment of DNA and histone
(c) A segment of DNA, RNA, and histone
(d) All of the above
Explanation: A gene is considered the fundamental unit of Heredity responsible for transmitting characteristics from parents to offspring. Genes contain biological information required for the synthesis of proteins and regulation of cellular activities. In Living Organisms, hereditary material is mainly associated with nucleic Acids present inside chromosomes. While proteins like histones help in packaging genetic material inside the nucleus, they do not themselves represent hereditary coding units. Questions of this kind require distinguishing between the actual information-carrying component and the structural substances associated with it. Understanding the relationship between DNA, RNA, chromosomes, and proteins is essential in Genetics. Knowledge of MolecularBiology explains how genes control traits, cell functions, and inheritance patterns through replication and expression processes occurring inside cells.
Option a – A segment of DNA
Which of the following diseases are caused by the consumption of water contaminated by mercury and nitrate?
Explanation: Water Pollution caused by toxic chemicals and industrial waste can seriously affect human Health. Mercury contamination commonly occurs due to industrial discharge entering rivers and lakes, while excessive nitrate contamination often results from fertilizers and sewage mixing with groundwater. Both substances produce different Health disorders that affect the nervous system, blood oxygen Transport, and overall body functioning. Questions of this type require connecting the pollutant with the Disease produced due to long-term exposure. Mercury poisoning is especially dangerous because it accumulates in body tissues through the Food chain. Nitrate contamination affects infants more severely because it interferes with oxygen supply in blood circulation. Understanding environmental Chemistry and public Health helps identify the correct Disease combinations linked to contaminated drinking water sources.
Option c – Minamata Disease and Blue Baby Syndrome
Which one of the following elements is present in the green pigment of leaves?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Iron
(c) Calcium
(d) Copper
Explanation: The green color of leaves is due to chlorophyll, a pigment essential for photosynthesis in plants. Chlorophyll absorbs sunlight and converts Solarenergy into chemical energy used for Food synthesis. The Molecular structure of chlorophyll contains a central metallic ion surrounded by a large ring-like arrangement of atoms. This central element is extremely important because it helps the pigment absorb Light efficiently. Different Minerals play different biological roles in plants, such as strengthening tissues, transporting electrons, or maintaining enzyme activity. Questions related to chlorophyll test understanding of plant physiology and mineral Nutrition. Knowledge of photosynthesis, pigments, and plant biochemistry helps determine which metallic element is structurally associated with the green pigment found in leaves.
Option a – Magnesium
Which one of the following is a major effect of long-term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than 0.5 ppm) or no fluoride?
(a) Cavity of tooth
(b) Erosion of nail
(c) Deformation of bone
(d) Mottling of tooth
Explanation: Fluoride is an important mineral required in small quantities for maintaining healthy teeth and bones. Drinking water naturally contains fluoride in varying concentrations depending on geological conditions. When fluoride levels become extremely low, teeth lose protection against bacterial damage and mineral loss. On the other hand, excessive fluoride intake may lead to staining and skeletal problems. This question focuses on deficiency-related effects rather than toxicity. Understanding the role of fluoride in strengthening tooth enamel is essential for solving such Questions. Public Health studies often emphasize the importance of maintaining fluoride within an optimal concentration range in drinking water supplies. Knowledge of dental Health, mineral balance, and environmental Chemistry helps identify the condition associated with insufficient fluoride intake over long periods.
Option c – Deformation of bone
Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains:
(a) A nitrogenous Base, deoxyribose sugar, and phosphate group
(b) A nitrogenous Base, ribose sugar, and phosphate group
(c) Deoxyribose sugar, ribose sugar, and phosphate group
Explanation: DNA is a long polymer made up of repeating structural units called nucleotides. Each nucleotide contains three essential components joined together chemically. These components help store and transfer genetic information required for Heredity, protein synthesis, and cellular activities. The sugar present in DNA differs from the sugar found in RNA, which is another important nucleic Acid. Nitrogen-containing Bases arranged in specific sequences form the genetic code responsible for inherited traits. Phosphate groups link neighboring nucleotides together to form the backbone of the DNA strand. Questions on DNA composition test understanding of MolecularBiology and nucleic Acid structure. Recognizing the structural differences between DNA and RNA is especially important in Genetics and Biotechnology-related topics commonly asked in examinations.
Option a – A nitrogenous Base, deoxyribose sugar, and phosphate group
In a vessel containing SO3, SO₂, and O₂ at equilibrium, some helium gas is introduced so that total pressure increases while temperature and volume remain the same. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, the dissociation of SO3 ………….
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains unaltered
(D) cannot be predicted
Explanation: Chemical equilibrium depends on factors such as pressure, temperature, concentration, and volume. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, a system at equilibrium responds to disturbances in a way that minimizes the imposed change. However, it is important to distinguish between changes in total pressure and changes in partial pressure of reacting gases. When an inert gas like helium is added at constant volume, the number of moles of reactive gases and their partial pressures remain unchanged even though total pressure increases. Since equilibrium depends primarily on the partial pressures or concentrations of participating substances, the equilibrium position may not shift under such conditions. Questions of this type test conceptual understanding of gaseous equilibria and the correct application of equilibrium principles rather than simple memorization.
Option c – remains unaltered
One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant pressure of 1 atm from 25 °C to 50 °C. The change in internal energy is ……….
(A) -49.7 cal
(B) 75.0 cal
(C) 125.0 cal
(D) 173.9 cal
Explanation: Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature and not directly on pressure or volume. For a monoatomic ideal gas, internal energy arises mainly from translational kinetic energy of the gas particles. When temperature increases, Molecularmotion becomes faster, leading to an increase in internal energy. In Thermodynamics, the change in internal energy can be calculated using the relation involving molar Heat capacity at constant volume and temperature difference. The pressure condition given in the problem helps describe the process but does not alter the temperature dependence of internal energy. Questions of this kind test understanding of Kinetic Theory, ideal gas behavior, and thermodynamic state functions. Careful use of temperature change and gas-specific Heat capacity is necessary for solving such numerical problems correctly.
Option b – 75.0 cal
The work done to contract a gas in a cylinder is 232 J. 95 J energy is evolved in the process. What will be the internal energy change in the process?
(A) + 137 J
(B) – 220 J
(C) + 195 J
(D) – 460 J
Explanation: The first law of Thermodynamics relates Heat exchange, work done, and internal energy change in a thermodynamic process. During compression, work is done on the gas, which generally increases its internal energy. However, if Heat is simultaneously released to the surroundings, part of the supplied energy leaves the system. Sign conventions are extremely important in such problems because work done on the system and Heat evolved by the system carry opposite algebraic signs. Understanding whether energy enters or leaves the system helps determine the NET change in internal energy. Questions based on Thermodynamics often assess conceptual clarity regarding Heat transfer, compression processes, and energy conservation rather than complicated calculations alone.
Option a – + 137 J
For a reaction, A -> B, the rate of reaction increases by a factor of 3.375 when the concentration of A is increased by 1.5 times. The order of reaction with respect to A is ………..
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 2.5
Explanation: The rate of a chemical reaction depends on the concentration of reactants according to the rate law. In many reactions, the rate is proportional to concentration raised to a certain power known as the order of reaction. By comparing how much the rate changes when concentration changes, the reaction order can be determined mathematically. This type of question involves applying exponential relationships between concentration and reaction rate. Fractional or whole-number orders are both possible depending on the mechanism of the reaction. Understanding logarithmic reasoning and power relationships helps solve such problems efficiently. Chemical kinetics Questions like this test conceptual understanding of rate laws rather than memorization of formulas alone.
Option b – 3
12 moles of H₂ and 4.2 moles of I2 are mixed and allowed to attain equilibrium at 500 °C. At equilibrium, the concentration of HI is found to be 8 moles. The equilibrium constant for the formation of HI is ………..
(A) 50
(B) 40
(C) 100
(D) 60
Explanation: Chemical equilibrium is established when the forward and reverse reaction rates become equal. For gaseous reactions, the equilibrium constant relates the concentrations or moles of products and reactants present at equilibrium. Solving such questions requires first determining how many moles of reactants are consumed to produce the observed quantity of product. Stoichiometric relationships from the balanced chemical equation are then used to calculate equilibrium amounts of all species. After obtaining these values, the equilibrium constant expression is applied carefully. Questions of this type combine concepts of stoichiometry and equilibrium Chemistry. Accurate mole calculations and correct substitution into the equilibrium expression are essential for arriving at the required value.
Option b – 40
In Haber’s process, 30 liters of dihydrogen and 30 liters of dinitrogen were taken for the reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the simplest ratio of composition (in liter) of gaseous ammonia, nitrogen, and hydrogen respectively under the aforesaid condition at the end?
(A) 4 : 5 : 3
(B) 1 : 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 5 : 3
(D) 4 : 2 : 6
Explanation: Haber’s process involves the reaction between nitrogen and hydrogen gases to form ammonia according to a fixed stoichiometric ratio. Gas volumes under identical conditions of temperature and pressure behave according to mole relationships in the balanced equation. To solve this type of question, the limiting reactant must first be identified by comparing the available gas ratio with the required stoichiometric ratio. Since the reaction yield is only partial, the actual amount of ammonia formed becomes lower than the theoretical value. The remaining unreacted gases must then be calculated carefully. Such questions test understanding of stoichiometry, limiting reagent concepts, percentage yield, and gaseous reaction relationships in chemical equilibrium and industrial Chemistry.
Option c – 2 : 5 : 3
If the volume of the gas is reduced to half from its original volume then its specific Heat will ………..
(A) be doubled
(B) remain constant
(C) be reduced to half
(D) increase four times
Explanation: Specific Heat is a physical property that represents the amount of Heat required to raise the temperature of a unit Mass of a substance by one degree. For gases, specific Heat mainly depends on the nature of the gas and the thermodynamic conditions under which heating occurs, such as constant pressure or constant volume. It is considered an intensive property, meaning it does not depend directly on the quantity or volume of the substance present. Therefore, simply compressing or expanding a gas changes parameters like pressure and density but does not fundamentally alter its intrinsic specific heat value. Questions of this type test conceptual understanding of thermodynamic properties and the distinction between extensive and intensive quantities in Physics and Chemistry.
Option b – remain constant
The volume of a gas decreases from 850 cc to 450 cc when a sample of gas is compressed by an average pressure of 0.5 atm. During this process, 10 J of heat is liberated. The change in internal energy is ……….
(A) – 8.44 J
(B) 30.5 J
(C) -202.6 J
(D) 10.26 J
Explanation: The first law of Thermodynamics states that the change in internal energy of a system depends on heat exchanged and work done during the process. When a gas is compressed, work is done on the system because the external force reduces its volume. At the same time, the statement that heat is liberated indicates energy leaves the system as heat. Correct sign conventions are very important in Thermodynamics problems. work associated with compression is generally positive for the system, while released heat carries a negative sign. The change in internal energy is obtained by combining these two contributions properly. Questions like this evaluate understanding of energy conservation, pressure-volume work, and thermodynamic sign conventions rather than formula memorization alone.
Option d – 10.26 J
Calculate the work done during the compression of 4 mol of an ideal gas from a volume of 5 m³ to 50 dm³ at 300 K against a pressure of 100 kPa.
(A) -250 kJ
(B) -25.55 kJ
(C) + 495 kJ
(D) – 4.95 kJ
Explanation:work done during compression or expansion of a gas depends on the external pressure and the change in volume. In Thermodynamics, compression means the gas volume decreases because work is done on the system by external forces. The expression for pressure-volume work under constant external pressure involves multiplying pressure by the change in volume. Careful unit conversion is essential because gas volume may be given in different units such as cubic meters and cubic decimeters. The negative sign associated with compression reflects the convention that work is done on the gas. Questions of this type test understanding of thermodynamic processes, sign conventions, and unit consistency. Accurate conversion and substitution are necessary to determine the magnitude of work correctly.
Option c – + 495 kJ
For a chemical reaction at 27°C, the activation energy is 600R. The ratio of the rate constants at 327°C to that of at 27°C will be ……..
(A) 2
(B) 40
(C) e
(D) e²
Explanation: The Arrhenius equation explains how the rate constant of a reaction changes with temperature and activation energy. Activation energy represents the minimum energy required for reacting molecules to undergo successful collisions. As temperature increases, a larger fraction of molecules acquires sufficient energy to overcome this barrier, causing the reaction rate to rise significantly. In such problems, temperatures must first be converted into Kelvin before substitution into the Arrhenius relation. The ratio of rate constants at two temperatures depends exponentially on activation energy and temperature difference. Questions of this type test conceptual understanding of reaction kinetics, temperature dependence of reactions, and exponential relationships involved in chemical rate theory.
Option c – e
In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.6 M to 0.3 M in 20 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.2 M to 0.05 M is ………..
(A) 13.5 minutes
(B) 20 minutes
(C) 40 minutes
(D) 80 minutes
Explanation: First-order reactions possess a characteristic property in which the half-life remains constant regardless of the initial concentration of reactant. A decrease from one concentration value to half of that value indicates completion of one half-life period. Once the half-life is known, additional concentration changes can be analyzed by counting how many half-life intervals are required. Since concentration changes exponentially in first-order kinetics, each equal fractional reduction requires the same amount of time. Questions of this kind test understanding of logarithmic decay, half-life concepts, and integrated rate equations. Recognizing repeated halving patterns often allows the problem to be solved quickly without extensive calculations.
Option c – 40 minutes
The oxidation state of potassium in KIO3 is ………
(A) 0
(B) +1
(C) +2
(D) +7
Explanation: Oxidation state represents the apparent charge assigned to an Atom in a compound based on electron distribution rules. Alkali Metals such as potassium belong to Group 1 of the Periodic Table and generally show a fixed oxidation state in most compounds because they readily lose one electron. In ionic compounds, oxidation numbers are assigned systematically so that the total algebraic sum equals the overall charge of the compound. Questions involving oxidation states test understanding of Periodic trends, electron transfer, and Chemical Bonding principles. Knowledge of common oxidation states of elements greatly simplifies solving such problems and helps in balancing redox equations and predicting chemical behavior.
Option b – +1
Identify the element that undergoes reduction. MnO₂ + 2KOH + KNO3 -> K₂MnO4 + KNO₂ + H₂O
(A) K
(B) O
(C) Mn
(D) N
Explanation: Reduction and oxidation occur simultaneously in redox reactions through transfer of electrons between substances. Reduction involves a decrease in oxidation state or gain of electrons, while oxidation involves an increase in oxidation state. To determine which element undergoes reduction, oxidation numbers of relevant atoms in reactants and products must be compared carefully. Elements whose oxidation number decreases during the reaction are considered reduced. Questions of this type assess understanding of redox Chemistry and the systematic assignment of oxidation states in compounds. Careful observation of changes in oxidation numbers helps identify oxidizing and reducing agents as well as the species undergoing electron transfer.
Option d – N
Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement?
(A) The oxidation number of O in OF2 is +2.
(B) The oxidation number of O in Cl₂O is -2.
(C) The oxidation number of O in H₂O₂ is -1.
(D) The oxidation number of O in O3 is -2.
Explanation: Oxygen usually exhibits an oxidation number of −2 in most compounds, but there are important exceptions depending on the electronegativity and BondingEnvironment of the atoms attached to it. In peroxides, superoxides, and compounds with highly electronegative elements such as fluorine, oxygen may display unusual oxidation states. Questions of this type test conceptual understanding of oxidation number rules rather than simple memorization. Careful evaluation of each compound individually is necessary because the same element can behave differently under different chemical conditions. Understanding electronegativity, covalent Bonding, and oxidation state conventions is essential for identifying statements that violate standard chemical principles.
Option d – The oxidation number of O in O3 is -2.
In the reaction 3CuO+2NH3 → N₂+ 3H₂O + 3Cu, the change of NH3 to N₂ involves ……….
(A) loss of 6 electrons per mol of N₂
(B) loss of 3 electrons per mol of N₂
(C) gain of 6 electrons per mol of N₂
(D) gain of 3 electrons per mol of N₂
Explanation: Redox reactions involve electron transfer accompanied by changes in oxidation numbers. In ammonia, nitrogen possesses a negative oxidation state due to Bonding with hydrogen, whereas in elemental nitrogen gas the oxidation state becomes zero. An increase in oxidation number indicates oxidation and corresponds to loss of electrons. To determine the number of electrons involved, oxidation states before and after the reaction must be compared and multiplied according to the stoichiometric coefficients in the balanced equation. Questions of this kind test understanding of oxidation-reduction concepts, electron transfer calculations, and balancing of redox reactions. Careful tracking of oxidation state changes helps determine the total electron exchange occurring during the transformation.
Option a – loss of 6 electrons per mol of N₂
The two complexes PtCl4.2NH3 and PtCl4.2KC do not give a precipitate of AgCl when treated with AgNO3. The formulae of these complexes are …….. respectively.
(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and K2PtCl6
(B) [Pt(NH3)2]Cl4 and K2PtCl6
(C) [Pt(NH3)₂Cl2]Cl2 and K₂[PtCl4]Cl₂
(D) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and K₂[PtCl5]CI
Explanation: Coordination compounds contain a central metal Atom surrounded by ligands attached through coordinate bonds. Silver nitrate is commonly used to detect free chloride ions present outside the coordination sphere because such ions form a white precipitate of silver chloride. If no precipitate appears, it indicates that chloride ions are coordinated directly to the metal center rather than existing as free ions in solution. Questions of this type require understanding the distinction between ligands inside the coordination sphere and counter ions outside it. Knowledge of Werner’s coordination theory, ligand arrangement, and ionization behavior of complexes helps determine the appropriate structural formulae of coordination compounds.
Option a – [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and K2PtCl6
When methane is burnt in oxygen to produce CO₂ and H₂O, the oxidation number of C changes by ………. units.
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Explanation: Oxidation number helps track the transfer of electrons during chemical reactions, especially combustion and redox processes. In methane, carbon is bonded to hydrogen atoms and possesses a negative oxidation state because hydrogen is less electronegative in this combination. During combustion, methane reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water. In carbon dioxide, oxygen strongly attracts electrons, causing carbon to exhibit a positive oxidation state. The total change in oxidation number is determined by comparing the initial and final oxidation states of carbon. Questions of this type test understanding of oxidation-reduction concepts, electron transfer, and combustion Chemistry. Careful assignment of oxidation states using standard rules allows identification of the magnitude of oxidation occurring during the reaction.
Option d – 8
The e.m.f. of the cell Ag | Ag (0.01 M) || Ag (0.1M)| Ag at 298 K is …….
(A) 0.0059 V
(B) 0.059 V
(C) 5.9 V
(D) 0.59 V
Explanation: This is an example of a concentration cell in electrochemistry where both electrodes are made of the same material but differ in ion concentration. The potential difference arises because electrons tend to flow from the electrode with lower ion concentration toward the one with higher ion concentration until equilibrium is established. The Nernst equation is used to calculate the cell potential by relating electrode potential to concentration ratio. Since the electrodes are identical, the standard electrode potentials cancel out, simplifying the calculation. Questions of this type test understanding of electrochemical cells, concentration gradients, and logarithmic relationships in the Nernst equation. Correct substitution of concentrations and careful handling of logarithmic values are important for obtaining the required e.m.f.
Option b – 0.059 V
A lamp draws a current of 1.0 A. Find the charge in the coulomb used by the lamp in 60 s.
(A) 1 C
(B) 30 C
(C) 60 C
(D) 600 C
Explanation: Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor. The relationship between charge, current, and time is given by a simple mathematical expression in basic Electricity. When a device operates for a certain duration, the total amount of charge passing through it depends directly on both the current drawn and the operating time. Questions of this kind test understanding of fundamental electrical quantities and their units. Current is measured in amperes, charge in coulombs, and time in seconds. Applying the standard relation correctly allows calculation of the total charge transferred through the electrical circuit during the given interval.
Option c – 60 C
In which of the following compounds, carbon exhibits a valence of 4 but an oxidation state of -2?
(A) CH3CI
(B) CHCI3
(C) CH₂Cl₂
(D) HCHO
Explanation: Carbon generally forms four covalent bonds, giving it a valence of four in most Organic compounds. However, its oxidation state can vary widely depending on the atoms attached to it and their relative electronegativities. When carbon is bonded to more electronegative elements like chlorine or oxygen, electrons are considered shifted away from carbon, increasing its oxidation state. Conversely, bonds with hydrogen usually contribute negatively to the oxidation number of carbon. To solve such questions, oxidation states are calculated by assigning electrons according to electronegativity differences while separately considering valence based on bond formation. Questions like this test understanding of covalent Bonding, oxidation number rules, and Organic compound structures.
Option a – CH3Cl
Which of the following aqueous solution has the highest conductivity?
Explanation: Electrical conductivity of an aqueous solution depends on the number of ions available to carry electric current and the extent of ionization of the solute. Acetic Acid is a weak electrolyte, meaning it ionizes only partially in water. However, dilution affects the degree of ionization significantly. According to Ostwald’s dilution law, weak electrolytes ionize more as concentration decreases, increasing molar conductivity. At the same time, very low concentration reduces the total number of ions present in solution. Therefore, conductivity depends on a balance between concentration and ionization. Questions of this type test conceptual understanding of electrolytic conduction, weak electrolytes, and the effect of dilution on ion formation in aqueous solutions.
Explanation: A lead storage battery operates through reversible electrochemical reactions involving lead, lead dioxide, and sulphuric Acid. During discharge, chemical energy converts into electrical energy as oxidation and reduction reactions occur at the electrodes. Sulphuric acid participates actively in the reaction and its concentration gradually decreases as discharge proceeds. Lead sulphate forms on both electrodes, altering the chemical composition inside the battery. Questions based on lead-acid batteries test understanding of electrochemistry, battery operation, and reversible cell reactions. Observing how reactants and products change during charging and discharging helps identify which substances are consumed or produced during the process.
Option d – sulphuric acid is consumed
The oxidation state of iodine is negative in ………
(A) NaI
(B) ICI
(C) HIO4
(D) IF5
Explanation: Oxidation state indicates the apparent charge an Atom would possess if electrons in a compound were assigned completely according to electronegativity. Halogens such as iodine commonly show negative oxidation states when combined with Metals or less electronegative elements because they tend to gain electrons. However, iodine can also exhibit positive oxidation states in compounds containing highly electronegative atoms like oxygen or fluorine. Determining whether iodine has a positive or negative oxidation state requires applying oxidation number rules carefully to each compound. Questions of this kind assess understanding of Periodic trends, halogen Chemistry, and electron distribution in covalent and ionic compounds.
Option a – NaI
When 96500 coulombs of Electricity are passed through nickel sulphate solution, the amount of nickel deposited will be ……..
(A) 1 mol
(B) 0.5 mol
(C) 0.1 mol
(D) 2 mol
Explanation: Electrolysis involves chemical changes produced by the passage of electric current through an electrolyte. According to Faraday’s laws of electrolysis, the amount of substance deposited at an electrode depends directly on the quantity of Electricity passed. One faraday of Electricity corresponds to one mole of electrons, equal to approximately 96500 coulombs. To determine the amount of metal deposited, the number of electrons required for reduction of the metal ion must be considered. Questions of this type test understanding of electrochemical reactions, electron transfer, and stoichiometric relationships in electrolysis. Careful application of Faraday’s law allows calculation of deposited Mass or moles of metal.
Option b – 0.5 mol
If four moles of electrons are transferred from anode to cathode in an experiment on the electrolysis of water, then the total volume of the two gases produced at STP will be :
(A) 224 L
(B) 72.6 L
(C) 67.2 L
(D) 89.4 L
Explanation: Electrolysis of water produces hydrogen and oxygen gases through reduction and oxidation reactions occurring at separate electrodes. The balanced chemical equations reveal the relationship between electrons transferred and the number of moles of gases formed. Once the total moles of gaseous products are determined, their volume at standard temperature and pressure can be calculated using molar volume concepts. At STP, one mole of an ideal gas occupies a fixed volume. Questions of this type combine electrochemistry with gaseous stoichiometry and require careful balancing of half-reactions. Understanding electron-mole relationships is essential for determining the final gas volume correctly.
Option c – 67.2 L
The oxidation number of H, S, and O in sulphurous acid is …….. respectively.
(A) +1, +7 and -2
(B) +1, +4 and -2
(C) +1, +3 and -1
(D) +1, +3 and -2
Explanation: Oxidation numbers are assigned using standard rules based on electronegativity and compound neutrality. Hydrogen usually exhibits a positive oxidation state when bonded to NonMetals, while oxygen commonly shows a negative oxidation state except in special compounds such as peroxides. The oxidation state of sulfur in sulphurous acid can be determined by applying the rule that the sum of oxidation numbers in a neutral compound equals zero. Questions involving oxidation numbers test understanding of electron distribution, covalent Bonding, and systematic chemical calculations. Careful substitution and algebraic balancing help determine the oxidation state of each element present in the compound.
Option b – +1, +4 and -2
If the Salt bridge between two half cells of a galvanic cell is removed, ……….
(A) the voltage increases rapidly
(B) the voltage increases gradually
(C) the voltage remains the same
(D) the voltage drops to zero
Explanation: A galvanic cell generates electrical energy through spontaneous redox reactions occurring in separate half cells. The Salt bridge plays a crucial role in maintaining electrical neutrality by allowing ions to migrate between the compartments. Without this ionic movement, charge accumulation occurs rapidly in each half cell, preventing the continued flow of electrons through the external circuit. As a result, the electrochemical reaction gradually stops functioning. Questions of this type test understanding of electrochemical cell construction, ion migration, and the purpose of the Salt bridge in maintaining current flow. Knowledge of how electrical neutrality influences cell operation is essential for analyzing the behavior of galvanic cells under interrupted conditions.
Option d – the voltage drops to zero
For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the lowest freezing point?
(A) [Co(H₂O)6]Cl3
(B) [Co(H₂O)5CI]Cl₂.H₂O
(C) [Co(H₂O)4Cl2]Cl.2H₂O
(D) [Co(H₂O)3Cl3].3H₂O
Explanation: Depression in freezing point is a colligative property that depends on the number of solute particles present in solution rather than their chemical identity. When ionic compounds dissolve in water, they dissociate into ions, increasing the total number of particles and lowering the freezing point further. The extent of freezing point depression depends on the van’t Hoff factor, which represents the effective number of particles produced after dissociation. Coordination compounds differ in their ionization behavior depending on whether chloride ions remain inside or outside the coordination sphere. Questions of this kind test understanding of colligative properties, electrolyte dissociation, and coordination Chemistry. Careful counting of ions released in solution helps determine which compound produces the greatest lowering of freezing point.
Option a – [Co(H₂O)6]Cl3
When 0.5 mol CoCl3.4NH3 is treated with an excess of AgNO3, 0.5 mol of AgCl is obtained. The conductivity of the solution will correspond to ……..
(A) 1 : 3 electrolyte
(B) 1 : 2 electrolyte
(C) 1 : 1 electrolyte
(D) 3 : 1 electrolyte
Explanation: Coordination compounds contain ligands attached directly to a central metal Atom, while some ions may remain outside the coordination sphere as counter ions. Silver nitrate reacts only with free chloride ions present outside the coordination sphere, producing silver chloride precipitate. By comparing the amount of precipitate formed with the original amount of complex compound, the number of ionizable chloride ions can be determined. Once the ionization pattern is known, the number of ions produced in aqueous solution can be estimated, which directly affects electrical conductivity. Questions of this type test understanding of Werner’s theory, electrolyte dissociation, and the relationship between ionic concentration and conductivity in coordination compounds.
Option c – 1 : 1 electrolyte
In the blind spot of the human eye
(A) both cones and rods are absent
(B) only cones are absent
(C) both rods and cones are present
(D) only rods are absent
Explanation: The blind spot is a small region on the retina where the optic nerve exits the eye and carries visual information to the brain. Since this area lacks photoreceptor cells, incoming Light falling on it cannot be detected. The retina normally contains two important types of photoreceptors: rods, which help in dim-Light vision, and cones, which are responsible for color vision and visual sharpness. The absence of these receptors in the blind spot creates a region insensitive to Light. Questions related to the human eye test understanding of retinal structure, sensory physiology, and visual pathways. Despite the blind spot, normal vision usually remains uninterrupted because the brain fills missing information using input from both eyes.
Option a – both cones and rods are absent
Which is the CORRECT chronological sequence of Human Evolution?
(A) Ramapithecus → Australopithecines → Homo erectus → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens
(B) Ramapithecus – Homo habilis → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus
(C) Australopithecines → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
(D) Homo habilis → Australopithecines → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
Explanation: Human Evolution describes the gradual development of modern humans from ancestral primates over millions of years. Different evolutionary stages are identified based on fossil evidence, skeletal structure, brain size, posture, and tool-making ability. Early primate ancestors gradually evolved into upright-walking forms with increasing intelligence and Social complexity. Species appearing later in the sequence generally show more advanced cranial development and behavioral traits. Questions on evolutionary chronology require understanding the relative appearance of important hominid groups rather than memorizing isolated names. Fossil discoveries and anthropological studies help establish the order in which major human ancestors evolved toward modern Homo sapiens.
Option a – Ramapithecus → Australopithecines → Homo erectus → Neanderthal man → Homo sapiens
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the plant
(A) Cannabis sativa
(B) Atropa belladonna
(C) Datura
(D) Papaver somniferum
Explanation: Cannabinoids are naturally occurring chemical compounds known for their psychoactive and medicinal effects on the nervous system. These substances are extracted mainly from the flowering parts or inflorescence of certain plants. Cannabinoids influence brain activity by interacting with specific receptors involved in mood, memory, appetite, and perception. Different medicinal and narcotic plants produce distinct alkaloids or chemical compounds with varying physiological effects. Questions of this type test knowledge of pharmacology, medicinal plants, and naturally occurring psychoactive substances. Understanding the botanical source and biological action of these compounds is important in Biology and medical science examinations.
Option a – Cannabis sativa
A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the Population?
(A) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(B) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
(C) 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
(D) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
Explanation: This question is based on the Hardy–Weinberg principle, which explains how allele and genotype frequencies remain constant in a stable Population under ideal conditions. If the frequency of one allele is known, the frequency of the other allele can be calculated because the total allele frequency equals one. Genotype frequencies are then determined using algebraic expressions involving squares and products of allele frequencies. Homozygous dominant, heterozygous, and homozygous recessive forms each have predictable proportions in the Population. Questions of this type test understanding of PopulationGenetics, probability, and inheritance patterns. Correct substitution into Hardy–Weinberg expressions is essential for obtaining genotype distribution values accurately.
Option a – 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(A) Bacillus subtilis
(B) Pseudomonas putida
(C) Thermus aquaticus
(D) Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
Explanation: Taq polymerase is a heat-stable enzyme widely used in MolecularBiology, especially in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). During PCR, repeated heating cycles are required to separate DNA strands, so ordinary enzymes would become denatured at high temperatures. Taq polymerase remains active even after exposure to intense heat because it originates from a thermophilic microorganism adapted to extremely hot environments. This property makes it highly valuable in DNA amplification techniques used in Genetics, medicine, and forensic science. Questions on this topic test understanding of Biotechnology, enzymes, and microbial adaptations. Knowledge of thermophilic Organisms and their industrial applications is important in modern biological sciences.
Option c – Thermus aquaticus
Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons to protect non-infected cells from viral infection. Therefore, interferon is known as ………. barrier.
(A) physiological
(B) cellular
(C) physical
(D) cytokine
Explanation: The human immune system protects the body through multiple defense mechanisms categorized into physical, cellular, physiological, and biochemical barriers. Interferons are protein molecules released by virus-infected cells that help neighboring healthy cells resist viral invasion. These proteins interfere with viral replication and activate protective immune responses. Unlike physical barriers such as skin or cellular defenses involving white blood cells, interferons function through biochemical signaling mechanisms inside the body. Questions of this type test understanding of innate immunity, antiviral defense systems, and immune signaling molecules. Knowledge of how the body naturally prevents the spread of infections is important in immunology and medical Biology.
Option d – cytokine
Which one of these animals is NOT a homeotherm?
(A) Camelus
(B) Chelone
(C) Macropus
(D) Psittacula
Explanation: Homeothermic animals maintain a relatively constant internal body temperature regardless of changes in environmental temperature. Birds and mammals are generally homeotherms because they possess efficient metabolic and physiological mechanisms for temperature regulation. In contrast, many reptiles depend heavily on external environmental conditions to regulate body temperature and are therefore classified differently. Questions of this type assess understanding of Animal physiology, thermoregulation, and vertebrate classification. By identifying whether an organism relies mainly on internal metabolic heat or external environmental heat, one can determine if it belongs to the homeothermic category. Knowledge of Animal adaptation and body temperature regulation is important in zoology and Ecology.
Option b – Chelone
Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: The cells lining the villi in the small intestine have microscopic projections called microvilli. Statement II: Microscopic microvilli increase the surface area of absorption enormously.
(A) Statement I is correct, and II is wrong.
(B) Statements I and II both are wrong.
(C) Both statements are correct.
(D) Statement II is correct, and I is wrong.
Explanation: The small intestine is the primary site for Digestion and absorption of nutrients in the human body. Its inner lining contains finger-like projections called villi that increase the available surface area for absorption. The epithelial cells covering these villi possess even smaller microscopic projections known as microvilli, collectively forming the brush border. These structures greatly enhance the efficiency of nutrient absorption by providing a much larger contact area between digested Food and intestinal cells. Questions of this type test understanding of digestive system Anatomy and the relationship between structure and function in biological systems. Knowledge of how specialized adaptations improve absorption efficiency is essential in physiology and human Biology.
Option c – Both statements are correct.
Select the CORRECT statement from the ones given below.
(A) Barbiturates, when given to criminals, make them tell the truth.
(B) Morphine is often given to persons, who have undergone surgery, as a pain killer.
(C) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.
(D) Cocaine is given to patents after surgery as it stimulates recovery.
Explanation: Different drugs and narcotic substances affect the nervous system in different ways depending on their chemical nature and physiological action. Some substances act as painkillers, others as stimulants, depressants, or hallucinogens. Medicines used after surgery are selected carefully based on their therapeutic effects and safety. Certain drugs can reduce pain perception, while others alter consciousness, behavior, or cardiovascular activity. Misuse of addictive substances can damage Health and impair normal body functions. Questions of this type test understanding of pharmacology, drug classification, and medical applications of chemical substances. Accurate knowledge of the effects of narcotics, stimulants, and therapeutic drugs is essential for distinguishing medically correct statements from scientifically inaccurate ones.
Option a – Barbiturates, when given to criminals, make them tell the truth.
The stirrer is provided with a rotating shaft and blades for
(A) proper foam control
(B) proper mixing
(C) control of temperature
(D) control of pH
Explanation: In industrial fermenters and bioreactors, a stirrer plays an important role in maintaining uniform conditions throughout the Culture medium. The rotating shaft and attached blades continuously mix the contents, ensuring proper distribution of nutrients, oxygen, microorganisms, and temperature. Effective mixing prevents settling of particles and improves contact between microbial cells and dissolved substances required for growth and metabolic activity. Without proper agitation, some regions may become deficient in oxygen or nutrients, reducing the efficiency of the fermentation process. Questions on this topic test understanding of industrial microbiology, fermentation Technology, and bioreactor design. Knowledge of the functions of different fermenter components helps explain how industrial-scale biological processes are controlled efficiently.
Option b – proper mixing
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?
(A) Fertilization of the egg is affected outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where the gestation is completed.
(B) Fertilization of the egg is affected in the female genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a large test tube.
(C) A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator.
(D) Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo are affected in a large test tube
Explanation: The term “test tube baby” refers to a child produced through assisted reproductive Technology, mainly involving in vitro fertilization. In this method, the egg and sperm are allowed to fuse outside the human body under controlled laboratory conditions. After successful fertilization and early embryonic development, the embryo is transferred into the uterus where normal gestation continues. The embryo is not grown completely inside a test tube, as commonly misunderstood. Questions related to this topic test understanding of reproductive biology, infertility treatment, and modern medical Biotechnology. Knowledge of the stages involved in assisted reproduction helps distinguish scientific facts from popular misconceptions regarding artificial fertilization techniques.
Option a – Fertilization of the egg is affected outside the body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the womb of the mother where the gestation is completed.
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do NOT specifically affect reproductive organs?
(A) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
(B) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(C) Syphilis and Genital herpes
(D) AIDS and Hepatitis B
Explanation: Sexually transmitted diseases may affect either the reproductive system directly or other organs and body systems indirectly. Some infections mainly target reproductive tissues, causing ulcers, inflammation, or genital lesions, while others spread throughout the body and affect the immune system or liver function. Certain viral diseases transmitted through sexual contact produce systemic effects rather than remaining restricted to reproductive organs. Questions of this type test understanding of human Health, infectious diseases, and modes of transmission. Knowledge of how different pathogens affect various body systems helps distinguish localized reproductive infections from broader systemic diseases associated with sexual transmission.
Option d – AIDS and Hepatitis B
Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
(A) as bicarbonate ions
(B) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(C) by binding of RBC
(D) as carbaminohaemoglobin
Explanation: Carbon dioxide produced during cellular Respiration must be transported by blood from body tissues to the lungs for removal. The human body uses multiple Transport mechanisms for this purpose. A small portion remains dissolved directly in plasma, while some combines with hemoglobin to form special compounds inside red blood cells. However, the majority undergoes chemical conversion involving water and enzymes within erythrocytes, producing ions that move through the bloodstream efficiently. This mechanism allows large amounts of carbon dioxide to be carried safely without greatly disturbing blood pH. Questions on this topic test understanding of respiratory physiology, gas Transport, and acid-Base balance in the circulatory system.
Option a – as bicarbonate ions
Which of the following animals are TRUE coelomates with bilateral symmetry?
(A) Annelids
(B) Adult Echinoderms
(C) Aschelminthes
(D) Platyhelminthes
Explanation: Animals are classified based on body organization, symmetry, embryonic layers, and the presence or absence of a body cavity called the coelom. A true coelom is a Fluid-filled cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, allowing internal organs to develop and function efficiently. Bilateral symmetry means the body can be divided into equal right and left halves along a single plane. Different Animal groups exhibit varying combinations of these characteristics. Questions of this type test understanding of zoological classification and evolutionary development of body plans. Knowledge of coelom formation and symmetry patterns is important for identifying major invertebrate phyla and their structural organization.
Option a – Annelids
Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?
Explanation: Biological and anatomical facts often involve standard numerical values related to body structures, biochemical components, or Disease classifications. Such questions require comparing each statement with scientifically accepted data. Human Anatomy contains fixed numbers of certain bones and vertebrae, while proteins are formed from specific amino Acids occurring naturally in Living Organisms. Medical science also classifies diseases into recognized categories based on physiological causes and symptoms. Questions of this type test factual accuracy and conceptual understanding across different branches of biology. Careful recall of standard biological numbers and classifications helps identify which statement matches accepted scientific knowledge correctly.
Option c – Floating ribs in humans-4
Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a Disease resulting from its deficiency?
(A) Relaxin – Gigantism
(B) Prolactin – Cretinism
(C) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(D) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
Explanation: Hormones are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands that regulate growth, metabolism, reproduction, calcium balance, and many other physiological functions. Deficiency or excess of a hormone can lead to specific disorders affecting body systems. For example, some hormones influence growth and development, while others regulate blood sugar levels or muscle function. Questions involving hormone disorders require understanding the normal function of endocrine secretions and the consequences of their imbalance. Matching endocrine glands, hormones, and associated diseases is a common topic in human physiology and medical biology. Accurate knowledge of hormonal regulation helps distinguish correctly associated deficiency disorders from unrelated conditions.
Option c – Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
The hormone relaxin, responsible for easy birth of the baby is secreted by ……….
(A) Graafian follicle
(B) Corpus callosum
(C) Corpus luteum
(D) Corpus Albicans
Explanation: Relaxin is a reproductive hormone involved in preparing the female body for childbirth. During pregnancy, it helps relax pelvic ligaments and soften the cervix, making the process of delivery easier. This hormone is produced by specialized structures associated with the ovary after ovulation and during pregnancy. Different ovarian structures have distinct roles in hormone secretion and reproductive regulation. Questions related to reproductive endocrinology test understanding of ovarian physiology, menstrual cycle events, and hormonal changes during pregnancy. Knowledge of the functions of reproductive hormones and their sites of secretion is important in human physiology and developmental biology.
Option c – Corpus luteum
How was the ‘new’ variety of Indian Basmati developed by the American company?
(A) Indian variety was continuously self-pollinated.
(B) Indian variety was crossed with pure-dwarf varieties.
(C) Indian Variety Variety was crossed with pure-tall variety.
(D) Indian variety was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties.
Explanation: Plant breeders often develop improved crop varieties by crossing plants that possess desirable traits such as high yield, disease resistance, shorter height, or better grain quality. In hybridization, characteristics from two genetically different parent varieties are combined to produce offspring with improved agricultural performance. Semi-dwarf varieties became especially important during the Green Revolution because they showed better resistance to lodging and responded efficiently to fertilizers. Questions of this type test understanding of plant breeding techniques and crop improvement strategies. Knowledge of how traditional crop varieties are genetically modified through selective crossing helps explain the development of commercially valuable rice strains and the scientific basis of agricultural Biotechnology.
Option d – Indian variety was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties.
In human adult females oxytocin
(A) stimulates the pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(B) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
(C) is secreted by the anterior pituitary
(D) stimulates the growth of mammary glands.
Explanation: Oxytocin is an important hormone associated mainly with reproduction and childbirth in human females. It is released from the posterior pituitary gland and plays a significant role during labor by influencing the muscles of the uterus. The hormone also participates in milk ejection during lactation by acting on mammary glands. Hormones involved in reproduction often work together in a coordinated manner to regulate pregnancy, childbirth, and maternal functions. Questions related to endocrine physiology test understanding of hormonal control mechanisms and their target organs. Knowledge of pituitary hormones and their physiological effects is essential for distinguishing correct biological functions from unrelated endocrine activities.
Option b – causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
We covered all the grb biology Class 11mcqs above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
My name is Vamshi Krishna and I am from Kamareddy, a district in Telangana. I am a graduate and by profession, I am an android app developer and also interested in blogging.