Punjab University Previous Year Question Papers. We covered all the Punjab University Previous Year Question Papers in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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Punjab University Previous Year Question Papers Objective for Students
With which of the following regions did India have the closest contact during the Gupta period?
(a) South-East Asia
(b) Central Asia
(c) Iran
(d) Western Asia
Explanation: This question asks which geographical region maintained the most significant interactions with India during the Gupta period, considering trade, Culture, religion, and political connections. The Gupta age (4th–6th century CE) is often regarded as a period of economic prosperity and cultural expansion, during which India established strong external links.
During this time, trade routes—both land and maritime—played a major role in shaping contacts with other regions. Indian merchants, monks, and scholars traveled extensively, spreading ideas such as Buddhism and Hindu traditions beyond the subcontinent. Cultural exchange was not limited to goods but included Art, scripts, and religious practices.
To determine the closest contact, one must consider the intensity and continuity of exchanges. Regions connected through well-established trade routes, frequent diplomatic missions, and shared cultural influences would have had deeper ties. Archaeological evidence, inscriptions, and foreign accounts help identify these connections.
For example, if two regions regularly exchanged goods like spices, textiles, and ideas such as religion or language, their interaction would be considered stronger than occasional or indirect contact.
In summary, the region with the most frequent and impactful trade, cultural exchange, and historical evidence of interaction with Gupta India would be identified as having the closest contact.
Option a – South-East Asia
Which one of the following most suitably defines the term shreni? ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
(a) An organization of people of one caste following the same vocation
(b) An organization of people of one caste following different vocations
(c) An organization of people of one or more castes following one vocation
(d) An organization of people of different castes following different vocations
Explanation: This question focuses on understanding the meaning of the term “shreni,” which appears frequently in ancient Indian economic and Social contexts. The term is associated with organized groups involved in production, trade, or specific occupations during early historic and Medieval periods.
In ancient India, economic activities were often structured through collective organizations. These groups regulated production, maintained quality standards, fixed prices, and sometimes even provided Social security to their members. Such organizations also had internal rules and leadership, functioning somewhat like modern associations or guilds.
To identify the correct definition, one must analyze the composition and purpose of such groups. The key idea lies in whether membership was based on caste, occupation, or both. Historical records suggest that these organizations were primarily linked to professions rather than rigid Social divisions.
For instance, artisans like weavers, metalworkers, or traders often formed associations to protect their economic interests. These groups could include individuals from similar or different Social backgrounds but united by a shared occupation.
In essence, the correct definition should reflect an organized body formed around economic activity, emphasizing occupation as the central factor rather than purely Social identity.
Option a – An organization of people of one caste following the same vocation
Which of the following was not characteristic of the period that followed the Gupta rule?
(a) Decrease in trade
(b) Increase in the use of coins
(c) Increase in the use of local weights and measures
(d) Multiplication of feudatories
Explanation: This question asks you to identify a feature that did not belong to the post-Gupta period, which is often associated with political fragmentation and socio-economic changes. After the decline of the Gupta Empire, India witnessed the emergence of regional kingdoms and a shift in economic patterns.
During this period, long-distance trade declined compared to earlier times, and the use of coinage reduced in many regions. Instead, local economies became more self-sufficient, relying on barter systems and localized production. Feudal tendencies also increased, with land grants given to officials and religious institutions.
To identify the incorrect characteristic, one must compare known features such as reduced trade, rise of feudal lords, and localization of economies with the given options. Any feature that contradicts these established patterns would stand out as inconsistent with historical evidence.
For example, if a period is marked by declining trade and reduced monetization, then any claim suggesting increased coin usage would not align with the overall trend.
In summary, understanding the broad economic and political transitions after the Gupta Empire helps in identifying which feature does not fit the historical context.
Option b – Increase in the use of coins
Choose the incorrect statement
(a) Bhagavatism advocates devotion to God
(b) Bhagavatism looks upon ascetic life as very paramount for salvation
(c) Bhagavatism stresses devotion to one’s duty
(d) Bhagavatism shuns the caste distinctions in society
Explanation: This question evaluates understanding of Bhagavatism, a devotional tradition centered on the worship of a personal deity, particularly Vishnu or Krishna. It emphasizes devotion (bhakti) as a path to spiritual liberation.
Bhagavatism emerged as a response to ritual-heavy practices and promoted a more personal connection with the divine. It encouraged individuals to perform their duties sincerely while maintaining devotion. The movement often reduced the importance of rigid Social distinctions and made religious practice more accessible.
To identify the incorrect statement, one must distinguish between devotional practices and ascetic traditions. Bhagavatism does not primarily promote renunciation or extreme austerity; instead, it focuses on devotion combined with ethical living.
For instance, a belief system that encourages people to fulfill their worldly duties while remaining devoted differs significantly from one that prioritizes withdrawal from society.
Thus, by comparing the principles of devotion, duty, and Social inclusiveness with the idea of strict asceticism, one can determine which statement does not align with Bhagavatism.
Option d – Bhagavatism shuns the caste distinctions in society
Which of the following is related to the main Bhagavata deity ‘Vasudeva Krishna’? ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
(a) Warrior God
(b) Philosopher and Preacher
(c) Protector of the cattle world
(d) All of the above
Explanation: This question explores the multifaceted nature of Vasudeva Krishna within the Bhagavata tradition. Krishna is portrayed in various roles across texts such as the Mahabharata and the Bhagavata Purana.
He is not limited to a single identity; instead, he embodies several dimensions. As a warrior, he plays a crucial role in guiding and supporting the Pandavas. As a philosopher and teacher, he delivers profound spiritual teachings, particularly in the Bhagavad Gita. Additionally, his pastoral life as a protector of cattle reflects his connection with rural and agrarian communities.
To answer this question, it is essential to recognize that Krishna’s character integrates multiple roles rather than being confined to one aspect. Each role contributes to his broader significance in religious and cultural traditions.
For example, a leader who is also a teacher and protector demonstrates a composite identity rather than a singular function.
In summary, understanding Krishna as a multidimensional figure helps identify the option that best represents his diverse attributes within Bhagavatism.
Option d – All of the above
Which one of the following is not related to the feudal formation in the Gupta and post-Gupta times?
(a) Emergence of landed intermediaries
(b) Growth of a class of subject peasantry
(c) Localized village Economy developed with little scope for the functioning of the market system
(d) Emergence of strong centralized political authority
Explanation: This question examines features associated with feudal developments during the Gupta and post-Gupta periods. Feudalism in this context refers to a system where land grants and local authority played a significant role in governance and Economy.
During this time, rulers granted land to officials, priests, and military leaders, leading to the emergence of intermediaries who controlled land and collected revenue. This resulted in the growth of a dependent peasantry and a decline in centralized control. Economic activity became more localized, with reduced reliance on large-scale trade networks.
To identify what is not related, one must look for a feature that contradicts decentralization and the rise of local powers. Feudal systems typically weaken central authority rather than strengthen it.
For instance, if power is distributed among local landlords, it naturally reduces the influence of a central ruler.
Thus, any option suggesting strong centralized governance would not align with the characteristics of feudal formation during this period.
Option d – Emergence of strong centralized political authority
Which is a celestial phenomenon occurring due to stars? ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
A. Ozone hole
B. Black hole
C. Rainbow
D. Comet
Explanation: This question requires identifying a phenomenon that originates from or is directly associated with stars in outer space. Celestial phenomena are events or objects observed in the universe beyond Earth’s Atmosphere.
Stars are massive luminous bodies that can give rise to various cosmic phenomena through their formation, Evolution, and eventual collapse. Some phenomena are directly linked to stellar processes, while others are atmospheric or Earth-based and unrelated to stars.
To solve this, one must differentiate between astronomical phenomena and terrestrial effects. For example, atmospheric events like rainbows or ozone-related changes occur within Earth’s Environment, not due to stars.
An appropriate example would be a phenomenon formed by gravitational or nuclear processes in space, directly involving stars or stellar remnants.
In summary, identifying whether a phenomenon originates from stellar activity or Earth-based processes helps determine the correct choice.
Option b – Black hole
The ‘Black Hole’ theory was propounded by
A. C.V. Raman
B. H.J. Bhabha
C. S. Chandrashekhar
D. Hargovind Khurana
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the scientist associated with the theoretical development of black holes. Black holes are regions in space where gravity is so intense that nothing, not even Light, can escape.
The concept emerged from studies in astrophysics and general relativity. Scientists explored how massive stars collapse under their own gravity, leading to extremely dense objects. Theoretical models helped explain how such objects form and behave.
To answer this, one must recall contributions of scientists in astrophysics, particularly those who studied stellar Evolution and gravitational collapse. Not all famous scientists worked in this specific domain, so distinguishing their fields is important.
For instance, a scientist known for quantum mechanics or MolecularBiology would not typically be associated with black hole theory.
Thus, recognizing the contributions of astrophysicists in understanding stellar collapse and dense cosmic objects is key to identifying the correct individual.
Option c – S. Chandrashekhar
A ‘black hole’ is a body in space that does not allow any type of radiation to come out. This property is due to its ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
A. Very small size
B. Very large size
C. High-density
D. Very low density
Explanation: This question examines the physical property responsible for the defining characteristic of a black hole—its inability to let radiation escape. Black holes are formed when massive stars collapse, leading to extremely compact objects.
The key concept here is the relationship between Mass, volume, and density. When a large amount of Mass is compressed into a very small space, gravitational pull becomes अत्यधिक strong. This creates an escape velocity greater than the speed of Light, preventing any radiation from escaping.
To identify the correct property, one must analyze whether size, density, or other factors contribute to this extreme gravitational effect. A large size alone does not necessarily create such strong gravity unless Mass is also concentrated.
For example, a small but अत्यधिक dense object can exert stronger gravitational effects than a larger but less dense one.
In summary, the defining property of a black hole arises from the extreme concentration of Mass, leading to intense gravitational fields that trap all forms of radiation.
Option c – High-density
The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is
A. 2.5 crore years
B. 10 crore years
C. 25 crore years
D. 50 crore years
Explanation: This question relates to the motion of the Sun within the Milky Way galaxy. The Sun, along with the entire Solar system, orbits the center of the galaxy rather than remaining stationary.
This motion is governed by gravitational forces exerted by the massive central region of the galaxy. The path followed by the Sun is roughly circular, and the time taken for one complete orbit is known as a galactic year.
To determine the correct duration, one must consider astronomical scales, which are much larger than human timescales. The time involved is measured in millions of years rather than thousands or billions in this context.
For instance, just as Earth takes one year to orbit the Sun, the Sun takes a vastly longer time to orbit the galactic center.
In summary, understanding the concept of a galactic orbit and the immense scale of cosmic distances helps in estimating the time taken by the Sun to complete one revolution.
Option c – 25 crore years
The color of a star indicates its ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
Explanation: This question explores the relationship between the color of a star and its physical properties. Stars emit Light due to nuclear reactions occurring in their cores, and this Light can appear in different colors.
The color of a star is directly related to its surface temperature. Hotter stars tend to emit blue or white Light, while cooler stars appear red or orange. This relationship is explained by the principles of blackbody radiation.
To answer this question, one must distinguish between properties like distance, brightness, and temperature. While brightness can vary due to distance, color remains an intrinsic property linked to temperature.
For example, a blue flame is hotter than a red flame, illustrating how color corresponds to temperature.
In summary, analyzing how Light emission varies with temperature helps determine what information a star’s color reveals about it.
Option d – Temperature
‘Big Bang theory is related to
A. Continental Drifts
B. Origin of the Universe
C. Origin of the Himalayas
D. Eruption of Volcanoes
Explanation: This question deals with the Big Bang theory, one of the most widely accepted explanations for the origin of the universe. It describes how the universe began from an extremely hot and dense state and has been expanding ever since.
The theory is supported by evidence such as cosmic microwave background radiation, the expansion of galaxies, and the distribution of elements in the universe. It provides a framework for understanding how space, time, and Matter came into existence.
To identify the correct context, one must differentiate between geological, atmospheric, and cosmic phenomena. The Big Bang theory is not related to Earth-specific processes like continental drift or volcanic activity.
For instance, while volcanic eruptions explain local geological events, the Big Bang explains the beginning of the entire universe.
In summary, recognizing the scale and scope of the Big Bang theory helps in associating it with the correct domain of study.
Option b – Origin of the Universe
The Milky Way is classified as ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
A. Spiral Galaxy
B. Electrical Galaxy
C. Irregular Galaxy
D. Round Galaxy
Explanation: This question asks about the structural classification of the Milky Way galaxy, which is the galaxy that contains our Solar system. Galaxies are vast systems made up of stars, gas, dust, and dark Matter, and they are grouped based on their shape and structure.
Astronomers classify galaxies into different types such as spiral, elliptical, and irregular. Each type has distinct features, such as the presence of arms, a central bulge, or a lack of definite shape. The Milky Way exhibits a flattened disk-like structure with a central bulge and extended arms.
To determine the correct classification, one must focus on the observable structure of the Milky Way. Features like rotating arms and organized structure are key indicators of a particular category.
For example, galaxies with well-defined arms resemble pinwheels and show active star formation in those regions.
In summary, identifying the Milky Way’s structural features helps determine the category it belongs to among the main types of galaxies.
Option a – Spiral Galaxy
The limit beyond which stars suffer internal collapse is called
A. Chandrashekhar limit
B. Eddington limit
C. Hoyle limit
D. Fowler limit
Explanation: This question deals with the concept of a critical limit in stellar Physics beyond which a star cannot support itself against gravitational collapse. Stars maintain stability through a balance between gravitational force and internal pressure generated by nuclear reactions.
When a star exhausts its nuclear fuel, this balance is disturbed. If the Mass of the stellar core exceeds a certain threshold, the internal pressure is no longer sufficient to counteract gravity, leading to collapse.
To identify the correct term, one must recall limits proposed by astrophysicists that define the maximum Mass a star can have before collapsing into a denser object. These limits are fundamental in understanding the life cycle of stars.
For example, just as a bridge can only تحمل a certain load before collapsing, a star can only support a certain Mass.
In summary, recognizing the concept of a Mass threshold governing stellar stability helps identify the term describing this critical limit.
Option a – Chandrashekhar limit
The party system is part of which larger system among the following? ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
Explanation: This question examines the broader framework within which political parties operate. A party system refers to the arrangement and interaction of political parties within a country.
Political parties are organizations that aim to gain power and influence governance by contesting elections and representing public interests. They function within a structured Environment that includes institutions, laws, and processes related to governance.
To determine the larger system, one must consider the primary role of political parties. Since they are directly involved in governance, policymaking, and elections, they are closely linked to a system concerned with the exercise of power.
For instance, economic systems deal with production and distribution, while Social systems focus on relationships and cultural norms. Political parties, however, are central to decision-making authority.
In summary, identifying the domain in which political power is organized and exercised helps determine the larger system that includes party systems.
Option c – Political system
Inner-Party Democracy stands for
(A) A Government formed by several parties with a common program
(B) a Party closest to the party or parties forming the Government
(C) Periodical elections within the party to elect the office bearers of the party
(D) Secrets of Government are shared by parties in power
Explanation: This question focuses on the concept of democracy within a political party. Inner-party democracy refers to the extent to which democratic principles are practiced inside the organization itself.
In a democratic setup, members should have the opportunity to participate in decision-making processes. This includes selecting leaders, forming policies, and expressing opinions. Regular elections within the party and transparency in functioning are key indicators.
To identify the correct meaning, one must distinguish between external political processes and internal organizational practices. Inner-party democracy is not about how parties interact with each other or form governments, but about how they manage their own internal affairs.
For example, a club where members vote to elect their leaders demonstrates internal democracy.
In summary, understanding the application of democratic principles within a political party helps clarify what inner-party democracy truly represents.
Option c – Periodical elections within the party to elect the office bearers of the party
What was the date when the Anti defection Bill was passed? ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
(A) 17 February 1985
(B) 15 February 1985
(C) 30 March 1985
(D) 21 April 1985
Explanation: This question is related to a specific legislative event in Indian political History concerning the Anti-defection Law. This law was introduced to address the issue of elected representatives frequently changing parties for personal or political gain.
Such defections often led to instability in governments and undermined the democratic mandate. To prevent this, legal provisions were introduced to disqualify members who switched parties under certain conditions.
To answer this question, one must recall the historical timeline of when this legislation was enacted. It became part of the Constitution through an amendment, reflecting efforts to strengthen political stability.
For example, just as rules are introduced in a game to prevent unfair practices, this law was designed to maintain fairness and consistency in political representation.
In summary, remembering the historical context and timing of the Anti-defection legislation helps identify the correct date of its passage.
Option b – 15 February 1985
Which one of the following is not covered by the Anti-Defection Law?
(A) An-bloc defections in a Party
(B) Large defections in a Party in various spells
(C) Smaller defection in a single spell
(D) Party members in Parliament casting votes either to topple or support a Government
Explanation: This question tests understanding of the scope and limitations of the Anti-Defection Law in India. The law specifies conditions under which elected representatives can be disqualified for changing their party allegiance.
It generally covers actions like voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party directives. However, it also includes certain exceptions, such as mergers under specific conditions.
To determine what is not covered, one must carefully analyze which situations fall outside the defined rules. The law distinguishes between individual defections and group actions, as well as between legitimate exceptions and violations.
For instance, if a rule applies only to individual actions, then a collective or exceptional scenario may not be included.
In summary, understanding both the provisions and exceptions of the Anti-Defection Law helps identify which situation does not fall under its coverage.
Option b – Large defections in a Party in various spells
The political parties got Constitutional recognition for the first time in the year. ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
(A) 1975
(B) 1977
(C) 1985
(D) 1995
Explanation: This question relates to the formal acknowledgment of political parties within the Indian constitutional framework. Initially, the Constitution did not explicitly mention political parties, even though they played a crucial role in democracy.
Over time, the need to regulate party behavior and ensure stability led to their formal recognition. This was achieved through a constitutional amendment that introduced provisions related to party discipline and defection.
To answer this, one must recall the year when such an amendment was enacted. This change marked an important step in institutionalizing the role of political parties in governance.
For example, just as an organization gains official status through legal recognition, political parties gained constitutional importance through this amendment.
In summary, identifying the year of this constitutional change helps determine when political parties were formally recognized.
Option c – 1985
Which of the following is not true about the Anti-Defection Bill?
(A) An M.P. or an M.L.A. will be disqualified if he has voluntarily given up the membership of the party to which he belonged
(B) In the event of a member’s absence from voting in the House on a particular issue, an M.P. or M.L.A. will be disqualified
(C) A member shall not be disqualified if there is a merger of political parties
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will not be disqualified if he becomes a member of another political party later on
Explanation: This question requires identifying a statement that does not accurately reflect the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law. The law aims to prevent political instability caused by frequent party switching.
Key provisions include disqualification for voluntarily leaving a party or defying party instructions during voting. At the same time, certain exceptions are allowed, such as mergers under specified conditions.
To identify the incorrect statement, one must compare each option with the actual provisions of the law. Any statement that contradicts these rules or misrepresents the conditions for disqualification would be incorrect.
For example, if a rule clearly allows an exception, then a statement denying that exception would be false.
In summary, careful comparison of the law’s provisions with the given statements helps determine which one does not align with the actual rules.
Option d – The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will not be disqualified if he becomes a member of another political party later on
Who is empowered to recognize various political parties in India as National or Regional Parties? ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
(A) The Parliament
(B) The President
(C) The Election Commission
(D) The Supreme Court
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the authority responsible for granting official recognition to political parties in India. Recognition determines whether a party is classified as national or regional based on specific criteria.
Such recognition is important because it provides benefits like reserved election symbols and greater visibility. The authority responsible must be independent and capable of ensuring fair implementation of rules.
To determine the correct body, one must consider institutions involved in conducting elections and regulating political processes. This body is tasked with maintaining electoral integrity and overseeing party-related matters.
For example, just as an examination board certifies students based on performance, a regulatory authority evaluates parties based on electoral criteria.
In summary, identifying the institution responsible for conducting and regulating elections helps determine who grants official recognition to political parties.
Option c – The Election Commission
Who among the following scholars described the party system prevailing in India in the early years of Independence as one party dominant system?
(A) Myron Weiner
(B) Rajni Kothari
(C) Austin
(D) Bhikhu Parikh
Explanation: This question refers to a scholarly interpretation of India’s political system in the early years after independence. During this period, one political party had a dominant presence at both national and state levels.
Political scientists studied this phenomenon and described it using specific terms to explain how democracy functioned despite the dominance of a single party. Their analyses helped in understanding the nature of competition and governance during that time.
To answer this, one must recall the scholar who introduced or popularized the concept of a “one-party dominant system” in the Indian context. This requires familiarity with political theory and key contributors in the field.
For example, just as economists analyze market structures, political scientists analyze party systems.
In summary, identifying the scholar associated with this interpretation helps answer the question about the characterization of India’s early political system.
Option b – Rajni Kothari
The Nationalist Congress Party was formed in 1999 following the split in ( Punjab University Previous Year Question )
(A) Shiv Sena
(B) Congress Party
(C) BJP
(D) BSP
Explanation: This question asks about the origin of a major political party in India and the circumstances that led to its formation. Political parties often emerge due to ideological differences, leadership disputes, or disagreements on policy matters within an existing party.
In Indian politics, splits within large, established parties have historically led to the creation of new organizations. These splits usually occur when a group of leaders separates due to conflicting views or dissatisfaction with the central leadership.
To identify the correct parent party, one must recall the political context of the late 1990s. During this period, debates over leadership, ideology, and national issues led to internal divisions within a prominent political party.
For example, when members of an organization disagree strongly on leadership decisions, they may form a new group with their own identity and agenda.
In summary, understanding the political developments and internal conflicts of the time helps determine which party experienced the split that led to the formation of the new organization.
Option b – Congress Party
After the formation of the Bhartiya Janta Party, who became its first President?
(A) L.K. Advani
(B) A.B. Vajpayee
(C) M.M. Joshi
(D) Sikandar Bakht
Explanation: This question focuses on leadership in a major political party at the time of its formation. When a new political party is established, its first president plays a crucial role in shaping its ideology, organization, and early growth.
The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) was formed in 1980, emerging from earlier political movements and parties. Its leadership at the beginning was significant in defining its direction and establishing its presence in Indian politics.
To answer this, one must recall the founding phase of the party and the prominent leaders associated with it. Not all well-known leaders necessarily held the position of president at that time, so distinguishing roles is important.
For example, in any organization, the founding leader often sets the tone and structure for future development.
In summary, identifying the individual who held the top organizational position at the time of the party’s formation helps answer this question.
Option b – A.B. Vajpayee
Which of the following is a Regional Political Party?
(A) Congress
(B) BJP
(C) CPI
(D) Akali Dal
Explanation: This question tests the distinction between national and regional political parties in India. Political parties are classified based on their area of influence, electoral performance, and recognition criteria.
Regional parties typically operate within a specific state or region and focus on local issues, Culture, and interests. In contrast, national parties have a broader presence across multiple states and address nationwide concerns.
To identify a regional party, one must consider factors such as geographical focus and electoral reach. A party that primarily contests elections in one state and represents regional aspirations would fall into this category.
For example, a party that focuses on the needs of a particular linguistic or cultural group within a state is likely to be regional in nature.
In summary, understanding the scope and influence of political parties helps distinguish regional parties from national ones.
Option d – Akali Dal
Which one of the following parties is not a National Political Party?
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Bhartiya Janta Party
(C) Telugu Desham
(D) Indian National Congress
Explanation: This question requires identifying a political party that does not meet the criteria for national status in India. The Election Commission sets specific conditions for a party to be recognized as a national party.
These criteria include performance in elections, vote share, and presence across multiple states. Parties that do not fulfill these conditions are classified as regional or state parties.
To determine the correct option, one must compare the known status of each party with the recognition criteria. A party with influence limited to a particular region is less likely to qualify as a national party.
For example, a party that contests elections only in one or two states would not meet the requirements for national recognition.
In summary, analyzing the reach and electoral performance of each party helps identify which one does not hold national status.
Option c – Telugu Desham
Which one of the following has been recognized as National Party in 2016?
(A) IN.L.D.
(B) Akali Dal
(C) T.M.C.
(D) A.LA.D.M.K.
Explanation: This question focuses on a specific update in the classification of political parties by the Election Commission of India. Party recognition can change over time based on electoral performance and fulfillment of criteria.
National party status is granted to parties that demonstrate significant presence across multiple states. This includes achieving a required percentage of votes or winning a certain number of seats in elections.
To answer this question, one must recall which party met the criteria around the year 2016. This involves awareness of recent political developments and changes in party status.
For example, just as a student earns a higher rank after meeting certain benchmarks, a political party gains national status after fulfilling required conditions.
In summary, understanding how party recognition evolves over time helps identify which party achieved national status in the specified year.
Option c – T.M.C.
Who was the founder of the ‘Independent Labour Party’?
(A) R. Srinivasan
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation: This question relates to the History of political movements in India, particularly those associated with labor rights and Social justice. The Independent Labour Party was established to represent the interests of workers and marginalized communities.
Such parties often emerge to address issues like economic inequality, labor rights, and social discrimination. The founder of this party was a prominent leader known for advocating social reform and equality.
To answer this, one must recall key figures in Indian History who worked for the upliftment of disadvantaged groups and were involved in political organization.
For example, leaders who fought against social injustice often created platforms to represent the voices of workers and oppressed communities.
In summary, identifying the reformer associated with labor rights and social justice movements helps determine who founded the Independent Labour Party.
Option b – B.R. Ambedkar
In which year was the Communist Party of India divided into two parties CPI and CPIM?
(A) 1962
(B) 1964
(C) 1966
(D) 1969
Explanation: This question deals with a significant event in the History of leftist politics in India. The Communist Party of India (CPI) split into two factions due to ideological differences and disagreements over political strategies.
Such splits often occur when members of a party differ on issues like international alignment, economic policies, or methods of achieving political goals. In this case, differing views on global communist movements and domestic strategies played a role.
To identify the correct year, one must recall the timeline of political developments during the mid-20th century. This period saw considerable ideological debates within communist movements worldwide.
For example, when a group within an organization disagrees strongly with its direction, it may form a separate entity to pursue its own approach.
In summary, understanding the historical context and ideological divisions helps determine the year of the party’s split.
Option b – 1964
In which of the following state a regional party is not in power?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Kerala
Explanation: This question examines the presence of regional parties in state governments across India. Regional parties often dominate politics in certain states by focusing on local issues and identities.
However, not all states are governed by regional parties; some are led by national parties or coalitions. To answer this question, one must compare the political scenario of different states at a given time.
This requires awareness of which parties are currently in power and whether they are regional or national in nature. A state governed by a national party would be the correct choice here.
For example, if a state consistently elects national-level parties, it indicates a different political pattern compared to states dominated by regional forces.
In summary, knowledge of state-wise political leadership helps identify where a regional party is not in power.
Option d – Kerala
A political party in India can be recognized as National Party if it has state party status in at least
(A) Three States
(B) Four States
(C) Five States
(D) Seven States
Explanation: This question relates to the criteria used by the Election Commission of India to classify a political party as a national party. Recognition depends on performance in elections across multiple states.
A party must meet certain conditions, such as securing a minimum percentage of votes or seats, or achieving recognition as a state party in a specified number of states. These rules ensure that only parties with broad national presence receive this status.
To answer the question, one must recall the exact numerical requirement defined in the criteria. This number reflects the minimum spread needed across different regions.
For example, just as a company must operate in multiple cities to be considered national, a political party must demonstrate presence in several states.
In summary, understanding the formal criteria for national recognition helps determine the required number of states for qualification.
Option b – Four States
A political party is recognized as a regional party, if
(A) It gets 4% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election
(B) It gets 6% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election
(C) It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election
(D) None of the above
Explanation: This question focuses on the conditions required for a political party to be recognized as a regional or state party in India. The Election Commission sets specific benchmarks based on electoral performance.
These conditions typically involve securing a minimum percentage of votes in a state or winning a certain number of seats in legislative bodies. The aim is to ensure that recognized parties have genuine public support.
To identify the correct condition, one must understand the threshold SET for vote share or representation. The percentage requirement is a key factor in determining eligibility.
For example, just as a student must achieve a minimum score to pass an exam, a party must secure a certain vote share to gain recognition.
In summary, knowledge of the electoral criteria for party recognition helps identify the condition that qualifies a party as a regional entity.
Option c – It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the Assembly election
Who recognizes the political parties in India?
(A) President of India
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Ministry of Law and Justice
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the authority responsible for granting official recognition to political parties in India. Recognition determines whether a party is classified as national or regional and provides certain privileges like reserved symbols.
In a लोकतांत्रिक system, such responsibilities are assigned to an independent body to ensure fairness and neutrality. This body conducts elections, monitors political activities, and enforces rules related to party recognition and conduct.
To determine the correct authority, one must consider institutions involved in managing elections and maintaining electoral integrity. It cannot be a political figure or legislative body, as neutrality is essential in such decisions.
For example, just as an independent referee ensures fairness in a game, an impartial institution oversees elections and party recognition.
In summary, identifying the independent constitutional body responsible for conducting elections helps determine who recognizes political parties in India.
Option b – Election Commission of India
Which of the following does not constitute the social Base of the communist party in India?
Explanation: This question examines the typical social groups that support the Communist Party in India. Political parties often draw their strength from specific sections of society based on ideology and policies.
The Communist Party traditionally represents the interests of workers, peasants, and marginalized groups. It emphasizes equality, labor rights, and reduction of economic disparities. As a result, its support Base is generally among those who benefit from such policies.
To identify which group does not belong, one must compare the ideological alignment of each group with the principles of communism. Groups that benefit from capitalist or profit-driven systems may not align with communist ideals.
For example, individuals involved in large-scale business activities may have interests that differ from those of labor-focused movements.
In summary, understanding the ideological foundation of the Communist Party helps identify which social group is not typically part of its support Base.
Option b – Business class
The word ‘National in Indian National Congress was influenced by
(A) Ancient Indian precedents
(B) the Reaction against British rule
(C) European Precedents
(D) the Freedom Struggle of America
Explanation: This question explores the origin and inspiration behind the term “National” in the Indian National Congress. The naming of political organizations often reflects ideological influences and historical context.
During the late 19th century, political movements in India were influenced by global ideas, including those from Europe and other parts of the world. Concepts like nationalism, representative institutions, and organized political action were gaining prominence.
To determine the influence, one must consider the intellectual and political Environment in which the Congress was formed. Leaders were inspired by existing models of political organization and adapted them to Indian conditions.
For example, just as students adopt successful methods from others to improve their performance, political leaders borrow ideas from established systems.
In summary, understanding the global and historical influences on early Indian political leaders helps identify the source of inspiration behind the term “National.”
Option b – the Reaction against British rule
One end of a towel dips into a bucket full of water and the other end hangs over the bucket. It is found that after some time the towel becomes wet. It happens :
(A) Because the viscosity of water is high
(B) Because of the capillary action of cotton threads
Explanation: This question is based on the physical phenomenon that explains how liquids can move through narrow spaces without external force. The towel becoming wet even above the water level indicates the movement of water through its fibers.
The fibers of a towel consist of tiny pores that act like narrow tubes. When placed in water, liquid rises through these pores due to intermolecular forces between the liquid and the Solid surface, along with cohesion within the liquid.
To understand this, one must consider how liquids behave in narrow spaces. The attraction between water molecules and the fibers pulls the liquid upward, while cohesion keeps the molecules together.
For example, a similar effect can be seen when a plant absorbs water from soil through its roots and transports it upward.
In summary, the movement of water through the towel occurs due to intermolecular forces acting within narrow spaces, enabling the liquid to rise against gravity.
Option b – Because of the capillary action of cotton threads
In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube, the water rises up to 0.1 m. If the same experiment is repeated in an artificial satellite which is revolving around the Earth, water will rise in the capillary tube up to a height of. :
(A) 0.1 m
(B) 0.2 m
(C) 0.98 m
(D) Full length of the tube
Explanation: This question examines the role of gravity in capillary action. Capillary rise depends on surface tension, angle of contact, density of the liquid, and gravitational acceleration.
In a capillary tube, liquid rises because surface tension pulls it upward, while gravity pulls it downward. The height reached is determined by the balance between these forces.
In an artificial satellite, the effective gravity is nearly zero due to continuous free fall. This significantly alters the balance of forces acting on the liquid.
To analyze this situation, one must understand that when gravitational pull is absent or negligible, the resisting force against capillary rise is greatly reduced. As a result, the liquid is no longer limited by the same constraints as on Earth.
For example, in microgravity environments, liquids behave differently, often spreading or rising more freely.
In summary, the absence of effective gravity changes the limiting factors of capillary rise, leading to a different outcome compared to conditions on Earth.
Explanation: This question deals with the concept of pressure difference across curved liquid surfaces. In drops and bubbles, surface tension creates an inward force that leads to higher pressure inside compared to outside.
The magnitude of this excess pressure depends on surface tension and the curvature of the surface. Smaller drops have higher curvature, which results in greater pressure difference.
To understand this, one must consider how surface tension acts along the surface, trying to minimize area. This creates a compressive effect inside the drop or bubble.
For example, a small soap bubble feels more “tight” and requires more pressure to maintain its shape compared to a larger one.
In summary, the excess pressure inside a drop or bubble depends on the curvature of its surface, which is related to its size.
Option c – Inversely proportional to its radius
Two capillary tubes of different diameters are dipped in water. The rise of water is :
(A) Greater in tubes of smaller diameter
(B) Greater in tubes of larger diameter
(C) Same in both
(D) Zero in both
Explanation: This question explores how the diameter of a capillary tube affects the height of liquid rise. Capillary action occurs due to surface tension and adhesive forces between the liquid and the tube walls.
The height of rise is inversely related to the radius of the tube. This means that narrower tubes allow the liquid to rise higher, while wider tubes show less rise.
To analyze this, one must consider the balance between surface tension pulling the liquid upward and gravitational force pulling it downward. In narrower tubes, the upward force is more effective relative to the weight of the liquid column.
For example, water rises higher in thin plant vessels compared to wider ones.
In summary, the diameter of the tube plays a crucial role, with smaller diameters resulting in greater capillary rise due to stronger प्रभाव of surface forces.
Option a – Greater in tubes of smaller diameter
Water rises to a height of 16.3 cm in a capillary of height 18 cm. If the tube is cut at a height of 12 cm :
(A) Water will come as a fountain from the capillary
(B) Water will stay at a height of 12 cm in the capillary tube
(C) The height of water in the tube will be 10.3 cm
(D) Water will flow down the sides of the capillary tube
Explanation: This question examines how the maximum possible capillary rise interacts with the physical length of the tube. The liquid attempts to rise to its प्राकृतिक capillary height, determined by surface tension and other factors.
If the tube is shorter than the प्राकृतिक rise height, the liquid cannot exceed the length of the tube. Instead, it fills the tube up to its top.
To understand this, one must compare the प्राकृतिक rise height with the available length of the tube. If the available length is less, it becomes the limiting factor.
For example, if water wants to rise 16 cm but the tube is only 12 cm long, it will simply fill the entire tube rather than exceed it.
In summary, the actual height of the liquid is limited by the shorter of the two—either the प्राकृतिक capillary rise or the physical length of the tube.
Option b – Water will stay at a height of 12 cm in the capillary tube
A capillary is dipped vertically in a liquid. The level in the capillary will be the same as outside the capillary if the angle of contact is :
(A) Zero
(B) 90°
(C) Acute
(D) obtuse
Explanation: This question focuses on the role of the angle of contact in capillary action. The angle of contact determines whether a liquid rises or falls in a capillary tube.
When the angle of contact is such that adhesive and cohesive forces balance in a particular way, there is no NET rise or fall of the liquid. This happens when the vertical component of surface tension becomes zero.
To determine this condition, one must understand that capillary rise depends on the cosine of the angle of contact. When this value becomes zero, the height of rise also becomes zero.
For example, if a force has no vertical component, it cannot lift or lower an object.
In summary, identifying the angle at which the vertical component of surface tension vanishes helps determine when the liquid level remains unchanged.
Option b – 90°
Water from inside the earth rises through the trunk of a big tree to leaves high up. The main reason for this is :
Explanation: This question explores the mechanism by which water moves upward in tall trees. Transport of water in plants involves several physical processes working together.
One important factor is the presence of narrow vessels in the plant, which allow water to rise due to surface tension and adhesive forces. Additionally, transpiration from leaves creates a suction force that pulls water upward.
To identify the main reason, one must consider which process primarily enables upward movement against gravity. The structure of plant vessels plays a crucial role in facilitating this movement.
For example, just like water rises in thin tubes due to intermolecular forces, it also moves through plant vessels in a similar manner.
In summary, understanding how intermolecular forces and plant structure enable water Transport helps explain how water reaches great heights in trees.
Option a – Capillary action
Two soap bubbles of different radii are in Communication with each other. :
(A) Air flows from the larger bubble into the smaller one until the two bubbles are of equal size
(B) The size of the bubbles remains the same.
(C) Air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one and the larger bubble grows at the expense of the smaller one
(D) Air flows from the larger bubble into the smaller one and the smaller bubble grows at the expense of the larger one
Explanation: This question examines the behavior of connected soap bubbles with different sizes. Soap bubbles have excess internal pressure due to surface tension, and this pressure depends on the curvature of the bubble.
Smaller bubbles have higher internal pressure compared to larger ones because pressure is inversely related to radius. When two bubbles are connected, air moves from the region of higher pressure to lower pressure.
To analyze this, one must compare the internal pressures of both bubbles. Since the smaller bubble has greater pressure, air will naturally flow toward the larger bubble.
For example, air escaping from a tightly inflated balloon into a loosely inflated one demonstrates similar behavior.
In summary, pressure differences caused by size variation determine the direction of airflow between the bubbles, affecting their sizes accordingly.
Option c – Air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one and the larger bubble grows at the expense of the smaller one
The quantity on which the rise of liquid in a capillary tube does not depend is :
(A) Density of the liquid
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Radius of the capillary
(D) Angle of contact
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying factors influencing capillary rise and isolating the one that has no effect. Capillary rise depends on surface tension, angle of contact, density of the liquid, and radius of the tube.
These variables determine how strongly the liquid is pulled upward and how much gravitational force opposes it. However, some external factors do not significantly affect this balance.
To determine the irrelevant quantity, one must recall the formula governing capillary rise and identify which parameter is absent from it.
For example, if a factor does not appear in the governing relationship, it does not influence the outcome.
In summary, analyzing the variables involved in capillary rise helps identify which quantity has no role in determining the height of the liquid column.
Option b – Atmospheric pressure
If two identical mercury drops are combined to form a single drop, then its temperature will :
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remains the same
(D) Increase or decrease
Explanation: This question explores the effect of combining liquid drops on thermal properties. When two drops merge, the total surface area decreases, leading to a reduction in surface energy.
Surface energy is associated with surface tension and contributes to the internal energy of the liquid. When surface area decreases, excess energy is released, which can affect temperature.
To analyze this, one must understand that energy conservation plays a role. The decrease in surface energy is converted into other forms, such as thermal energy.
For example, when compressed systems release stored energy, it can manifest as Heat.
In summary, the change in surface area during merging affects the internal energy balance, which in turn influences the temperature of the resulting drop.
Option b – Increase
The angle of contact between glass and mercury is :
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 90°
(D) 135°
Explanation: This question deals with the concept of angle of contact, which is the angle formed between the liquid surface and the Solid surface at the point of contact. It reflects the balance between adhesive and cohesive forces.
For mercury and glass, cohesive forces within mercury are stronger than adhesive forces between mercury and glass. As a result, mercury does not spread over the glass surface and instead forms a convex shape.
To determine the angle, one must understand that when cohesion dominates, the angle of contact becomes greater than 90°, indicating poor wetting.
For example, water spreads on clean glass (small angle), while mercury forms droplets (large angle).
In summary, the dominance of cohesive forces over adhesive forces determines the magnitude of the angle of contact in this case.
Option d – 135°
The angle of contact is :
(A) Constant for a particularly Solid and liquid pair
(B) Acute for mercury and glass
(C) Obtuse for water and glass
(D) Obtuse for kerosine and glass
Explanation: This question asks for the correct definition of the angle of contact in the context of surface tension. It is a fundamental concept describing how a liquid interacts with a Solid surface.
The angle of contact is determined by the balance between adhesive forces (liquid-Solid interaction) and cohesive forces (liquid-liquid interaction). It indicates whether a liquid wets a surface or not.
To identify the correct definition, one must focus on the geometric description of the angle at the point where liquid, Solid, and air meet. It is measured through the liquid, between the tangent to the liquid surface and the Solid surface.
For example, a small angle indicates strong adhesion (good wetting), while a large angle indicates strong cohesion (poor wetting).
In summary, understanding the physical and geometric interpretation of this angle helps in identifying its correct definition.
Option a – Constant for a particularly Solid and liquid pair
For mercury and glass pair if Fc and FA are cohesive and adhesive forces then :
(A) FC < FA
(B) FC > FA
(C) FC = FA
(D) Not certain
Explanation: This question compares cohesive forces (within the liquid) and adhesive forces (between liquid and Solid) for a mercury-glass system. The relationship between these forces determines wetting behavior.
In the case of mercury and glass, mercury does not spread over the glass surface, indicating weak attraction between mercury and glass compared to attraction within mercury itself.
To determine the relation, one must analyze which force is stronger. If cohesive forces dominate, the liquid tends to form droplets and shows a convex meniscus.
For example, water spreads on glass because adhesion is stronger, whereas mercury forms beads due to stronger cohesion.
In summary, observing the wetting behavior of mercury on glass helps establish the relationship between cohesive and adhesive forces.
Option b – FC > FA
If we draw a graph between the height of liquid in a capillary tube against the reciprocal of the radius of the tube for a given liquid then we get :
(A) A straight line
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Circle
(D) Parabola
Explanation: This question explores the mathematical relationship involved in capillary rise. The height of the liquid column is inversely proportional to the radius of the capillary tube.
This means that if the radius decreases, the height increases proportionally. When plotting height against the reciprocal of the radius, the relationship becomes directly proportional.
To analyze the graph, one must convert the inverse relationship into a direct one. Plotting height versus 1/r results in a linear relationship.
For example, if one quantity doubles when another doubles, the graph between them is a straight line.
In summary, understanding how inverse relationships transform into direct proportionality helps determine the nature of the graph obtained.
Option a – A straight line
The pressure just below the meniscus of water :
(A) Is greater than just above it
(B) Is less than just above it
(C) Is the same as just above it
(D) Is always equal to atmospheric pressure
Explanation: This question deals with pressure differences across a curved liquid surface, specifically the meniscus formed in a capillary tube. Surface tension causes a pressure difference between the inside and outside of the curved surface.
For a concave meniscus, as seen with water in glass, the pressure inside the liquid just below the surface is lower than the pressure just above it. This is due to the curvature and surface tension forces.
To understand this, one must consider how surface tension pulls the liquid surface inward, affecting pressure distribution.
For example, curved surfaces in liquids often create pressure differences that influence Fluid movement.
In summary, analyzing the effect of curvature and surface tension helps determine how pressure varies across the meniscus.
Option b – Is less than just above it
A square frame of side I is dipped in liquid soap. When it is taken out of the liquid a film is formed on it. If the surface tension is T then the force acting on it is :
(A) 2 Tl
(B) 4 TI
(C) 8 TI
(D) 16 TI
Explanation: This question involves calculating the force due to surface tension acting on a soap film formed on a square frame. Surface tension acts along the boundary of the film and tends to minimize its surface area.
A soap film has two surfaces—inner and outer—both contributing to the force. The total force depends on the perimeter of the frame and the surface tension.
To determine the force, one must calculate the total length along which surface tension acts and multiply it by the surface tension value, considering both surfaces.
For example, if a force acts along multiple sides of a shape, the total effect is the sum over all sides.
In summary, understanding how surface tension acts along the boundaries of both surfaces of the film helps determine the total force on the frame.
Option c – 8 Tl
A rectangular frame of thin wire of length 4 cm and breadth 3 cm just rests on the surface of the water of surface tension 72 dyne/cm. The force due to surface tension acting on the frame is
(A) 2016 dyne
(B) 1008 dyne
(C) 201.6 dyne
(D) 100.8 dyne
Explanation: This question requires calculating the force due to surface tension on a rectangular frame. Surface tension acts along the entire boundary of the frame in contact with the liquid.
The total force depends on the perimeter of the rectangle and the surface tension. Since a liquid film has two surfaces, both must be considered in the calculation.
To solve this, one must first determine the perimeter of the rectangle and then multiply it by the surface tension value, accounting for both surfaces.
For example, if tension acts along all edges of a shape, the total force is proportional to the total edge length.
In summary, calculating the perimeter and considering the contribution of both surfaces helps determine the total force due to surface tension.
Option a – 2016 dyne
A soap film is formed on a rectangular frame of a length of 7 cm and breadth of 3 cm dipping in a soap solution. The framework hangs from a balance and an extra weight of 0.4 g is placed in the opposite pan to balance the pull of the film. The surface tension of the soap solution is (g= 1000 cm/s²) :
(A) 10 dyne/cm
(B) 5 dyne/cm
(C) 15 dyne/cm
(D) 20 dyne/cm
Explanation: This question involves determining surface tension using the force exerted by a soap film on a rectangular frame. A soap film has two surfaces, each contributing to the total force due to surface tension.
The force due to surface tension acts along the perimeter of the frame. The balancing weight provides the opposing force, allowing equilibrium. Thus, the weight can be equated to the total surface tension force.
To analyze this, one must convert the given Mass into force using gravitational acceleration and then relate it to the perimeter of the frame. Since both surfaces contribute, the effective length considered is doubled.
For example, if a stretched membrane pulls equally on all sides, the total pull depends on both its edges and surfaces.
In summary, by equating the gravitational force of the added weight to the total force due to surface tension along the frame, the surface tension can be determined.
Option a – 10 dyne/cm
Insects can move on the surface of the water without sinking due to :
(A) Hydrostatic upthrust
(B) Dynamic lift
(C) Viscosity of water
(D) The surface tension of water
Explanation: This question explores why certain insects can walk on water without sinking. The phenomenon is related to the physical properties of the liquid surface.
Water molecules at the surface experience cohesive forces that create a thin, elastic-like layer. This layer resists external force and behaves like a stretched membrane.
To understand this, one must consider how the weight of the insect is distributed over its legs. The force exerted is small enough that the surface layer is not broken.
For example, a stretched rubber sheet can support small objects without breaking, similar to how water supports insects.
In summary, the ability of insects to remain on the water surface is due to the elastic nature of the liquid surface caused by intermolecular forces.
Option d – The surface tension of water
Surface tension is the force per unit length on an imaginary line at the surface of liquid directed :
(A) Normal to the line and normal to the surface
(B) Normal to the line but along the surface
(C) Parallel to the line and along the surface
(D) Parallel to the line but normal to the surface
Explanation: This question deals with the direction of force associated with surface tension. Surface tension acts along the surface of a liquid and tends to minimize its surface area.
The force acts tangentially along the surface and is perpendicular to any imaginary line drawn on the surface. It is not directed outward or inward vertically but along the plane of the surface.
To determine the correct direction, one must visualize an imaginary line on the liquid surface and analyze how forces act on it due to Molecular interactions.
For example, if a stretched membrane is pulled along its edge, the force acts along the surface rather than perpendicular to it.
In summary, understanding the orientation of forces acting at the liquid surface helps identify the correct direction of surface tension force.
Option b – Normal to the line but along the surface
The surface tension of boiling water is :
(A) 72 dyne/cm
(B) 0.072 N/m
(C) Infinite
(D) Zero
Explanation: This question examines how temperature affects surface tension. Surface tension arises due to cohesive forces between molecules at the liquid surface.
As temperature increases, the kinetic energy of molecules also increases. This reduces the strength of intermolecular attraction, thereby decreasing surface tension.
At the boiling point, the liquid is about to change into vapor, and intermolecular forces are significantly weakened. This results in a very low value of surface tension.
For example, heating a liquid makes it easier to break its surface, similar to how warm wax becomes softer than cold wax.
In summary, increasing temperature reduces intermolecular forces, leading to a significant decrease in surface tension at high temperatures.
Option d – Zero
The Light thread is loosely bound along the diameter of the metal ring. If the metal ring is dipped in soap solution and taken out. The thread rests in a zigzag way. If the film on the right side is pricked with a pin. Then the thread :
(A) Is pulled to right and takes a curve shape
(B) Is pulled to left and takes a curve shape
(C) Will still remain zigzag
(D) Will also break down
Explanation: This question explores the behavior of a soap film and the forces acting on a thread placed within it. Initially, the thread is in equilibrium due to equal surface tension forces from both sides of the film.
When one side of the film is pricked, the balance is disturbed. The remaining film exerts an unbalanced force on the thread.
To analyze this, one must consider that surface tension always tries to minimize surface area. With only one side of the film remaining, the force pulls the thread in a specific direction, causing it to change shape.
For example, if two equal forces cancel each other and one is removed, the object moves in the direction of the remaining force.
In summary, the removal of one side of the film creates an unbalanced force, causing the thread to move and take a new shape under the influence of surface tension.
Option b – Is pulled to left and takes a curve shape
We covered all the Punjab University previous year question papers above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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