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Lucknow University BA LLB Objective Entrance Exam Question Paper for Students
Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the Supreme Court’s power to hear appeals in constitutional matters?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 132 combined with Article 134A
(D) Article 133 combined with Article 134A
Option c – Article 132 combined with Article 134A
Through which jurisdiction can cases involving constitutional interpretation be brought before the Supreme Court?
(A) Original Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Advisory Jurisdiction
(D) None of these
Option b – Appellate Jurisdiction
Among the following statements, which accurately describes the types of jurisdiction the Supreme Court holds?
(A) Only Original Jurisdiction
(B) Original and Appellate Jurisdiction only
(C) Advisory and Appellate Jurisdiction only
(D) Original, Appellate, and Advisory Jurisdictions
Option d – Original, Appellate, and Advisory Jurisdictions
What is the minimum number of Supreme Court judges required to hear a case that involves a significant constitutional question?
(A) Five
(B) Seven
(C) Eleven
(D) Thirteen
Option a – Five
In which landmark case did the Supreme Court declare that fundamental rights allow an individual to live life according to their own choice?
(A) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain
(B) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(C) Bank Nationalization Case
(D) Azhar vs. Municipal Corporation
Option b – Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
Identify the wrongly matched pair of case and ruling by the Supreme Court.
(A) Indira Sawhney Case: Introduction of creamy layer for Other Backward Classes
(B) Vishakha Case: Safeguards against workplace sexual harassment
(C) Maneka Gandhi Case: Articles 14, 19, and 21 are interrelated rights
(D) Bella Banerjee Case: Travel abroad is not considered a personal liberty
Option d – Bella Banerjee Case: Travel abroad is not considered a personal liberty
What is the minimum number of judges required for the Supreme Court to hear any constitutional interpretation case?
(A) Ten
(B) Nine
(C) Seven
(D) Five
Option d – Five
Under which jurisdiction does the Supreme Court resolve disputes between the Union government and the states?
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Constitutional Jurisdiction
Option c – Original Jurisdiction
The second-largest bench ever formed by the Supreme Court was for which case?
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Minerva Mills Case
(C) Bank Nationalisation Case
(D) T.M.A. Pai Foundation Case
Option a – Golaknath Case
Which case is famous for establishing the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Golaknath
(B) A.K. Gopalan
(C) Kesavananda Bharati
(D) Maneka Gandhi
Option c – Kesavananda Bharati
Which of the following cases introduced the concept of the Constitution’s Basic Structure?
(A) Indira Sahni Case
(B) Shankari Prasad’s Case
(C) Rudal Shah’s Case
(D) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Option d – Kesavananda Bharati Case
The Constitution allows for the appointment of temporary judges in which courts?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Courts
(C) District and Session Courts
(D) All of the above
Option a – Supreme Court
When was the Collegium System, which governs judicial appointments, adopted by the Supreme Court?
(A) 1993
(B) 1996
(C) 2000
(D) 2004
Option a – 1993
The Supreme Court Collegium consists of the Chief Justice and how many senior judges?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Option b – 4
What is the retirement age for Supreme Court judges in India?
(A) 62 years
(B) 63 years
(C) 64 years
(D) 65 years
Option d – 65 years
Who determines the salaries of Supreme Court judges?
(A) Pay Commission appointed by the President
(B) Law Commission
(C) Parliament
(D) Council of Ministers
Option c – Parliament
After retirement, Supreme Court judges are allowed to practice law before which courts?
(A) Only Supreme Court
(B) Only High Courts
(C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(D) None
Option d – None
Who appoints the acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Law Minister
Option c – President
Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President in consultation with whom?
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Chief Justice of India
Option d – Chief Justice of India
Temporary judges are appointed in the Supreme Court under which circumstance?
(A) When some judges are on extended leave
(B) When no permanent judge is available
(C) When there is a sudden rise in pending cases
(D) When quorum of judges is not available
Option d – When quorum of judges is not available
How can a Supreme Court judge be removed from office?
(A) Chief Justice’s decision
(B) President’s sole discretion
(C) President’s decision after recommendation by Chief Justice
(D) President’s decision after recommendation by Parliament
Option d – President’s decision after recommendation by Parliament
Removal of a Supreme Court judge requires which of the following?
(A) Inquiry by CBI
(B) Inquiry by Chief Justice
(C) Report from Bar Council
(D) Impeachment by Parliament
Option d – Impeachment by Parliament
(A) Act of Parliament in 1950
(B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(C) Government of India Act, 1953
(D) The Indian Constitution
Option d – The Indian Constitution
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Supreme Court was established in 1950
(B) It is the highest appellate court in India
(C) It can hear appeals from High Courts but not from Court-martial
(D) It can hear appeals from High Courts and Court-martial
Option c – It can hear appeals from High Courts but not from Court-martial
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Law Commission
Option b – Parliament
To resign from the Supreme Court, a judge must write to whom?
(A) Chief Justice
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Law Minister
Option b – President
The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and how many other judges?
(A) Seven
(B) Nine
(C) Thirty-three
(D) Twenty-five
Option c – Thirty-three
What is the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges?
(A) 24
(B) 20
(C) 18
(D) 34
Option d – 34
The current sanctioned number of Supreme Court judges is
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 34
Option d – 34
When was the Supreme Court of India formally inaugurated?
(A) 27 January 1950
(B) 28 January 1950
(C) 29 January 1950
(D) 30 January 1950
Option b – 28 January 1950
Which court delivered a landmark judgment regarding the status of women in Indian society in September 2003?
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Local Courts
(C) Special Courts
(D) High Court, Uttar Pradesh
Option a – Supreme Court of India
In 2011, which judge faced impeachment in Rajya Sabha but resigned before the motion reached Lok Sabha?
(A) Justice V. Ramaswami
(B) Justice Bhattacharya
(C) Justice Soumitra Sen
(D) Justice P.D. Dinakaran
Option c – Justice Soumitra Sen
Who is credited with the idea of mobile courts in India?
(A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) Rajeev Gandhi
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Pratibha Patil
Option c – Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Under preventive detention laws, the maximum initial period for detention without trial is
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) Nine months
Option b – Three months
Which writ is used to review the actions of subordinate courts?
A) Quo-Warranto
B) Mandamus
C) Certiorari
D) Habeas Corpus
Option c – Certiorari
What type of dispute was involved in the Babri Mosque/Ramjanambhoomi Case at the Allahabad High Court?
A) Writ petition
B) Title suit
C) Claim for compensation
D) Judicial review petition
Option b – Title suit
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is not included in the term ‘district judge’?
A) Chief presidency magistrate
B) Sessions judges
C) Tribunal judge
D) Chief judge of a small cause court
Option c – Tribunal judge
The term “District Judge” is mentioned under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
A) Article 230
B) Article 231
C) Article 232
D) Article 233
Option d – Article 233
To whom does a High Court Judge submit their resignation letter?
A) The President
B) The Chief Justice of India
C) The Chief Justice of the High Court
D) The Governor of the State
Option a – The President
Which Act defined the territorial governance divisions in India?
A) Government of India Act, 1858
B) Indian Council Act, 1861
C) Indian Council Act, 1892
D) Government of India Act, 1861
Option a – Government of India Act, 1858
Which Act transferred power from the British East India Company to the British Crown?
A) Government of India Act, 1833
B) Government of India Act, 1947
C) Government of India Act, 1858
D) Government of India Act, 1835
Option c – Government of India Act, 1858
Which legislation ended the East India Company’s commercial monopoly?
A) Charter Act of 1793
B) Charter Act of 1813
C) Charter Act of 1833
D) Charter Act of 1853
Option c – Charter Act of 1833
Which Act first allowed Indians to participate in administration?
A) Charter Act, 1833
B) Charter Act, 1853
C) Government of India Act, 1858
D) Indian Council Act, 1861
Option a – Charter Act, 1833
Which British Act separated the Legislature from the Executive?
A) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
B) Regulating Act, 1773
C) Settlement Act, 1781
D) Charter Act, 1853
Option d – Charter Act, 1853
Assertion (A): The Government of India Act, 1858 transferred governance from the East India Company to the Crown.
Reason (R): The East India Company no longer wanted to administer India.
(a) Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Option c – A is true, but R is false
What was the first step to introduce a representative element in Indian governance?
A) Indian Council Act, 1861
B) Indian Council Act, 1892
C) Indian Council Act, 1909
D) Government of India Act, 1919
Option a – Indian Council Act, 1861
Regarding the Indian Council Act, 1861, which statements are correct?
I. Introduction of portfolio system
II. Governor-General allowed to issue ordinances
III. Legislative Councils formed in Punjab, NWFP, and Agra
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, and III
(d) I and III
Option c – I, II, and III
Which Act expanded the Legislative Councils?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C) Indian Council Act, 1892
D) Indian Council Act, 1919
Option c – Indian Council Act, 1892
Which Act gave Legislative Councils the power to discuss the budget?
A) Indian Council Act, 1861
B) Indian Council Act, 1892
C) Indian Council Act, 1909
D) Indian Council Act, 1919
Option b – Indian Council Act, 1892
Which Act introduced communal representation in British India?
A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
B) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
C) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
D) Government of India Act, 1935
Option b – Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
When was the Morley-Minto Reform enacted?
A) 1907
B) 1909
C) 1911
D) 1919
Option b – 1909
Which Act introduced communal elections in India?
A) Indian Council Act, 1861
B) Indian Council Act, 1892
C) Indian Council Act, 1909
D) Government of India Act, 1935
Option c – Indian Council Act, 1909
Which Act introduced a separate electorate for Muslims?
A) Act of 1892
B) Act of 1909
C) Reforms of 1919
D) Government of India Act, 1935
Option b – Act of 1909
Which Government of India Act allowed elected representation in the legislature for the first time?
A) Government of India Act, 1858
B) Government of India Act, 1909
C) Government of India Act, 1919
D) Government of India Act, 1935
Option b – Government of India Act, 1909
Which Act vested the Secretary of State for India with supreme control?
A) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
B) Government of India Act, 1858
C) Indian Council Act, 1861
D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Option b – Government of India Act, 1858
Which of the following are provisions of the 1858 Act?
I. Transfer of administration to the Crown
II. Abolition of East India Company rule
III. Governor-General known as Viceroy and appointment of Secretary of State
IV. Sharing power between Crown and East India Company
(a) I, III, and IV
(b) I, II, and III
(c) II, III, and IV
(d) All of the above
Option b – I, II, and III
Which Act under the East India Company allowed shipment of opium to China?
A) Settlement Act, 1781
B) Charter Act, 1793
C) Charter Act, 1784
D) None of the above
Option b – Charter Act, 1793
Which Act abolished the East India Company’s trade monopoly in India?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C) Charter Act of 1813
D) None of the above
Option c – Charter Act of 1813
Which statements about the Charter Act of 1813 are correct?
I. Ended Company’s trade monopoly except tea and trade with China
II. Asserted British Crown sovereignty over Indian territories
III. Revenues of India controlled by British Parliament
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Option a – I and II
Which Act marked the first British step to control East India Company affairs?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C) Charter Act, 1813
D) Charter Act, 1793
Option a – Regulating Act, 1773
In which Act was the Supreme Court at Calcutta established?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Charter Act, 1813
C) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
D) Charter Act, 1833
Option a – Regulating Act, 1773
What was the first step to parliamentary control over the East India Company?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
C) Charter Act, 1793
D) Charter Act, 1813
Option a – Regulating Act, 1773
Which statements about the Regulating Act of 1773 are correct?
I. Parliamentary control over East India Company administration
II. Governor of Bengal made Governor-General
III. End of dual administration system
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Option a – I, II and III
Which Act, passed to address the Regulating Act’s shortcomings, is also called the East India Company Act, 1784?
A) Regulating Act, 1773
B) Indian Council Act, 1861
C) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
D) Government of India Act, 1858
Option c – Pitt’s India Act, 1784
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