d) To resolve legislative deadlocks between the two Houses
Explanation: A joint sitting of Parliament is a constitutional mechanism used when disagreement arises between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a legislative proposal. It ensures that the legislative process does not get stalled due to persistent differences between the two Houses. Instead of allowing a deadlock to continue indefinitely, both Houses meet together to deliberate and vote on the disputed Matter as a single body.
This provision reflects the balance between bicameralism and legislative efficiency in the Indian parliamentary system. While both Houses generally function separately with equal importance, certain situations require a combined decision-making process. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over such sittings, and decisions are made by a majority of members present and voting.
The mechanism is not used for all types of parliamentary business. It is restricted to specific categories of bills where disagreement persists after repeated consideration. Financial and constitutional sensitivity of certain bills often excludes them from this process.
Overall, this constitutional arrangement ensures that important legislative work is not blocked indefinitely while still respecting the distinct roles of both Houses in law-making.
Option d – To resolve legislative deadlocks between the two Houses
Consider the following statements regarding joint sittings: 1. Article 108 of the Constitution provides for joint sittings of Parliament. 2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha occurred in 1961. 3. The second joint sitting was held to pass the banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Joint sittings of Parliament are a constitutional provision designed to resolve disagreements between the two Houses of Parliament. These sittings are not routine and are invoked only under specific circumstances where legislative deadlock persists. The constitutional framework clearly defines the authority and procedure for convening such sessions, ensuring smooth functioning of the legislative process.
Historically, joint sittings have been rare events in Indian parliamentary practice. They represent exceptional situations where normal legislative mechanisms fail to resolve differences. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over these sittings, and decisions are taken collectively by members of both Houses through majority voting.
Such sittings are significant because they demonstrate how constitutional provisions are used to maintain legislative continuity. They also highlight the cooperative and corrective mechanisms embedded in the parliamentary system, ensuring that important laws are not blocked indefinitely due to institutional disagreement.
The historical record of joint sittings reflects their limited but important role in resolving specific legislative disputes, reinforcing the balance between bicameral independence and parliamentary unity.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
A legislative deadlock between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha requires a joint sitting in the case of
d) Both ordinary legislation and Constitution Amendment Bill
Explanation: Legislative deadlock occurs when the two Houses of Parliament cannot agree on the passage of a proposed law after repeated consideration. The constitutional framework provides a special mechanism to resolve such disagreements so that the law-making process does not come to a standstill. This mechanism is intended to maintain continuity in governance while respecting the bicameral structure of Parliament.
In normal circumstances, both Houses independently discuss, amend, and approve legislation. However, when disagreements persist beyond a certain stage, the Constitution allows both Houses to meet together. This combined session ensures that a final decision can be reached collectively, rather than allowing the bill to be indefinitely delayed.
This procedure is designed as a rare and exceptional remedy, not a routine legislative practice. It ensures that important public legislation is not blocked due to institutional differences. The process also reflects the principle that while both Houses have equal importance, legislative efficiency must be preserved.
Thus, the mechanism acts as a constitutional bridge between disagreement and final decision-making in the parliamentary system.
Option a – Ordinary legislation
Regarding private member’s bills in Parliament: 1. A private member’s bill is introduced by an MP who is not a minister. 2. A private member’s bill has been passed in Parliament for the first time in recent years. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Private member’s bills are an important part of parliamentary procedure that allow individual members of Parliament, who are not part of the Council of Ministers, to introduce legislation. This provides an opportunity for broader participation in the law-making process beyond the executive branch.
These bills reflect the legislative initiative of non-ministerial members and often highlight issues that may not be part of the government’s immediate agenda. While most laws are introduced by ministers, private member’s bills serve as a democratic tool to bring diverse concerns into parliamentary discussion.
In rare instances, such bills have been passed, showing that even individual MPs can influence legislation if there is sufficient consensus. However, the success rate of such bills is generally low because government-backed legislation typically dominates parliamentary time.
Overall, private member’s bills strengthen democratic representation by allowing independent legislative proposals, even though they are not frequently enacted into law.
Option d – Neither 1 nor 2
Concerning pending bills: 1. A bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on prorogation. 2. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse on Lok Sabha’s dissolution. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Pending bills in Parliament are subject to specific procedural rules that determine whether they continue or lapse when a House is prorogued or dissolved. These rules ensure clarity in the legislative lifecycle and prevent confusion regarding unfinished business.
Prorogation refers to the termination of a session of Parliament, but it does not necessarily end all pending legislative work. Some bills continue to exist beyond prorogation depending on their stage and the House in which they are pending. This ensures that legislative effort is not wasted unnecessarily.
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha has a more significant impact, as it affects bills that originate or are pending in that House. However, bills pending in the Rajya Sabha may continue under certain conditions, reflecting the continuity role of the upper House in the bicameral system.
These procedural distinctions help maintain stability in legislative functioning while ensuring that important proposals are not arbitrarily discarded.
Option b – Only 2
About Rajya Sabha officers and voting rights: 1. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman are not ordinary members of the House. 2. Nominated members of both Houses cannot vote in Presidential elections but can vote for the Vice-President. Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha, as the upper House of Parliament, has designated presiding officers who manage its proceedings. The Chairman presides over the House, while the Deputy Chairman assists in maintaining order and conducting debates. These roles are essential for ensuring smooth legislative functioning.
Voting rights in constitutional elections are governed by specific eligibility criteria. Members of Parliament participate in elections for certain constitutional posts based on the provisions laid down in the Constitution. However, nominated members have restricted voting rights in some cases.
The distinction between Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections reflects different electoral structures. While both involve elected representatives of Parliament, the composition of the electoral college varies slightly, affecting participation rules for nominated members.
This framework ensures a balance between representation and constitutional design, maintaining clarity in electoral participation within Parliament.
Option b – Only 2
With reference to the Union Government: 1. The Department of Revenue prepares the Union Budget. 2. No funds can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without Parliament’s authorization. 3. Disbursements from the Public Account also require Parliament’s approval. Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Union Budget is a comprehensive financial statement of the government, outlining estimated receipts and expenditures for the financial year. It is prepared by the relevant financial authorities within the government structure and presented to Parliament for approval.
Public finances in India are governed by constitutional provisions that ensure legislative control over expenditure. The Consolidated Fund of India is the main account into which all government revenues are deposited, and withdrawals from it require parliamentary approval. This ensures accountability and transparency in public spending.
However, not all government accounts function under the same level of parliamentary control. The Public Account operates differently, where certain transactions are managed without direct parliamentary appropriation, reflecting procedural distinctions in financial administration.
These mechanisms collectively ensure fiscal discipline while allowing operational flexibility in government financial management.
Option c – Only 2
Methods of parliamentary oversight on public finance include: 1. Placing the Annual finance Statement before Parliament. 2. Withdrawal from Consolidated Fund only after Appropriation Bill is passed. 3. Supplementary grants and vote-on-account. 4. Periodic review of government programmes against macroeconomic forecasts. 5. Introduction of the finance Bill in Parliament. Which of the above are correct?
a) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
b) Only 1, 2 and 4
c) Only 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation: Parliamentary control over public finance is a fundamental feature of democratic governance. It ensures that government expenditure is authorized, monitored, and evaluated through institutional mechanisms involving the legislature.
The Annual Financial Statement provides a structured overview of government Income and expenditure, forming the basis of budgetary discussion. No withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund can occur without parliamentary approval through the Appropriation Bill, reinforcing financial accountability.
Additional financial instruments such as supplementary grants and vote-on-account allow flexibility in managing unforeseen or interim expenditures. These tools ensure that governance continues smoothly even outside the full budget cycle.
Overall, these mechanisms collectively ensure that public funds are used responsibly while maintaining transparency and legislative oversight over fiscal policy.
Option a – Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
Difference between Vote-on-Account and Interim Budget: 1. Vote-on-Account is used by a regular government; Interim Budget is used by a caretaker government. 2. Vote-on-Account covers only expenditure; Interim Budget includes both expenditure and revenue. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Budgetary procedures in Parliament include special arrangements to manage government finances during transitional periods. These mechanisms ensure continuity of expenditure when a full budget cannot be presented or approved immediately.
A vote-on-account allows the government to withdraw funds for essential expenditure for a limited period, ensuring that routine financial operations continue without interruption. It does not involve a detailed financial statement of revenue and expenditure.
An interim budget, on the other hand, is a complete financial statement presented in special circumstances, often when a new government is about to take charge. It includes both revenue and expenditure estimates, reflecting a broader financial plan for a short period.
These tools ensure financial stability and continuity in governance during transitional phases of the political cycle.
Option b – Only 2
Normal stages in financial legislation include: 1. Budget presentation 2. Budget discussion 3. Passing of Appropriation Bill 4. Vote on Account 5. Passing of finance Bill. Which combination is correct?
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 1, 3 and 4
c) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
Explanation: Financial legislation in Parliament follows a structured sequence designed to ensure proper scrutiny and authorization of government spending. This process begins with the presentation of the budget, which outlines the government’s financial plan for the upcoming year.
Following presentation, detailed discussions take place in Parliament where members examine and debate various components of the budget. This ensures democratic oversight and allows for modifications based on legislative scrutiny.
Subsequently, the Appropriation Bill is passed to authorize withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund. In some cases, a vote on account is used to meet interim expenditure requirements before the full budget is approved. The finance Bill is then passed to implement taxation proposals.
This structured process ensures transparency, accountability, and legislative control over national finances.
Option d – Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
Prior approval of the President is required for Bills related to: 1. Formation of new states 2. Taxation affecting states 3. Alteration of state boundaries 4. Money Bill. Which of the above require prior sanction?
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 2, 3 and 4
c) Only 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Certain categories of legislative proposals in India require prior recommendation or approval from the President before they can be introduced in Parliament. This constitutional requirement ensures executive oversight in matters that have significant federal or financial implications.
Bills involving the creation of new states or alteration of state boundaries are sensitive because they directly affect the federal structure of the country. Similarly, taxation matters that impact states require careful consideration due to their financial consequences.
Money Bills, however, follow a different constitutional procedure and are governed by strict rules regarding their introduction and passage. The requirement of presidential recommendation ensures that such financial legislation aligns with constitutional provisions.
These safeguards maintain balance between legislative initiative and executive oversight in matters of national importance.
Option d – 1, 2, 3 and 4
Examine the following statements: 1. Right to Property is no longer a Fundamental Right. 2. Rajya Sabha can stop a Financial Bill. 3. Words “Secular” and “Democratic” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment. 4. Parliamentary disputes can be resolved by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 1 and 4
d) Only 2 and 3
Explanation: Constitutional provisions in India define the nature of rights, legislative powers, and parliamentary procedures. Over time, amendments and judicial interpretations have modified the status of certain rights, including property rights.
The financial powers of the Rajya Sabha are limited compared to the Lok Sabha, reflecting the primacy of the lower House in financial legislation. This ensures that Money-related decisions are primarily controlled by directly elected representatives.
The Preamble of the Constitution was expanded through constitutional amendments, reflecting evolving political and constitutional values. These changes reinforced the ideological foundation of the Indian state.
Parliamentary disputes are generally resolved through procedural mechanisms within the respective Houses, with presiding officers playing a key role in maintaining order and interpreting rules.
Option a – Only 1 and 2
Starred Questions in Parliament are characterized by: 1. Answers are given orally. 2. Answers are given in writing. 3. Supplementary Questions can be asked. 4. Supplementary Questions cannot be asked. 5. Answers can be discussed. 6. Speaker controls the answers. Select the correct combination:
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2 and 4
c) Only 5 and 6
d) Only 3 and 5
Explanation: Parliamentary questioning is an important mechanism used by members to hold the executive accountable. Among different types of Questions, starred Questions are those that are selected for oral answer during Question Hour, allowing direct interaction between members and ministers.
These Questions are designed to encourage active discussion in the House. Because the answers are provided orally, members have the opportunity to seek clarification through follow-up queries. This makes the process more dynamic and allows deeper scrutiny of government actions and policies.
The Speaker plays a crucial role in regulating this process. The Speaker decides which Questions are admitted, ensures relevance, and maintains order during Question Hour. This ensures that parliamentary time is used effectively while maintaining discipline.
This system strengthens legislative oversight by enabling real-time questioning of the executive, making it one of the most important accountability tools in Parliament.
Option a – Only 1 and 3
Parliament exercises control over Council of Ministers through: 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question Hour 3. Supplementary Questions. Which of the above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Parliamentary control over the Council of Ministers is a core feature of the democratic system. It ensures that the executive remains accountable to the legislature for its actions, policies, and decisions.
Different procedural tools are used for this purpose. Question Hour allows members to directly question ministers about government activities, ensuring transparency. Supplementary Questions further deepen this scrutiny by allowing follow-up inquiries based on initial responses.
Adjournment motions are another powerful instrument used to draw attention to urgent matters of public importance. When admitted, they temporarily interrupt normal business to discuss serious issues affecting the country.
Together, these mechanisms ensure continuous oversight of the executive, reinforcing the principle of responsible government in a parliamentary democracy.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
In which year was the Tribes Act, later known as the Criminal Tribes Act, first enacted?
a) 1952
b) 1924
c) 1871
d) 1911
Explanation: The Criminal Tribes legislation was introduced during the colonial period as part of British administrative control over certain communities. It was based on the colonial belief that some groups were “habitually criminal” by nature, which later became a widely criticized policy.
This law marked an important stage in colonial legal History because it institutionalized surveillance and control over selected communities. It allowed the government to register, monitor, and restrict the movement of these groups, significantly affecting their Social and economic life.
Over time, this classification system was considered unjust and discriminatory. After independence, the Indian government repealed such laws and reclassified these communities, reflecting a shift toward constitutional values of equality and dignity.
The legislation is now studied as an example of how colonial policies shaped Social categorization and legal control mechanisms.
Option c – 1871
When did the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, officially come into effect?
a) 1st July, 1989
b) 30th January, 1990
c) 30th July, 1989
d) 1st January, 1990
Explanation: The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) framework was enacted to address historical discrimination and violence against marginalized communities. It provides legal protection against specific forms of Social, economic, and physical exploitation.
The Act was introduced as a response to the limitations of earlier laws that were not sufficient to prevent caste-based atrocities. It established stricter provisions, special courts, and enhanced penalties to ensure effective enforcement.
Its implementation marked a significant step in strengthening constitutional safeguards for equality and Social justice. The law also ensures rehabilitation and relief measures for victims, reflecting a rights-based approach.
Overall, it represents a major legal instrument aimed at protecting dignity and preventing discrimination against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Option b – 30th January, 1990
Which Act serves as the legal framework for addressing atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
a) Act 1990
b) Act 1989
c) Act 1992
d) Act 1991
Explanation: The legal framework dealing with atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is designed to ensure protection of vulnerable communities from discrimination and violence. It strengthens existing criminal laws by introducing specific provisions tailored to caste-based offences.
This framework recognizes that general criminal laws were not sufficient to address the unique nature of Social discrimination faced by these communities. Therefore, it provides stricter punishment, special procedures, and dedicated judicial mechanisms.
The Act also emphasizes preventive measures, victim compensation, and rehabilitation, ensuring a holistic approach to justice. Special courts and designated officers play a key role in its enforcement.
It reflects the constitutional commitment to equality, dignity, and protection of marginalized groups within the Indian legal system.
Option b – Act 1989
Who is empowered to frame rules for the implementation of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Both State and Central Governments
d) Supreme Court
Explanation: The implementation of special legislation requires detailed rules to ensure proper enforcement across different administrative levels. These rules define procedures, responsibilities, and mechanisms for executing the provisions of the Act effectively.
Rule-making authority is typically assigned to ensure uniform application throughout the country. This ensures that legal provisions are not only theoretical but are translated into practical enforcement mechanisms.
Such rules may include procedures for investigation, victim relief, compensation, and functioning of special courts. They also help coordinate between different levels of government for effective implementation.
This structured rule-making process ensures consistency, accountability, and clarity in applying the law.
Option b – Central Government
What is the minimum punishment for offences committed by public servants under Section 3 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) One year
d) None of the above
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act prescribes enhanced penalties when offences are committed by public servants, reflecting the higher responsibility entrusted to government officials. Public servants are expected to uphold law and protect citizens, making violations by them more serious.
The Act increases accountability by imposing stricter punishment standards compared to ordinary offences. This ensures deterrence and reinforces trust in public institutions.
Such provisions are designed to prevent misuse of authority and to safeguard vulnerable communities from institutional abuse. The severity of punishment reflects the gravity of breach of duty.
This legal framework emphasizes that public office carries both authority and responsibility, and misuse of power attracts enhanced consequences.
Option c – One year
The State Government can designate a Court of Session as a Special Court for SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act offences with the approval of
a) Governor
b) Chief Justice of the High Court
c) District Session Judge
d) Ministry of Law
Explanation: Special Courts are established to ensure speedy and focused trial of offences under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. These courts are necessary because such cases require sensitive handling and priority in judicial processing.
The designation process involves coordination between the state government and higher judicial authorities. Approval from appropriate judicial leadership ensures that the selected court is suitable for handling such cases.
This system ensures that justice delivery is both efficient and legally sound, maintaining independence and fairness in trial procedures. Special Courts help reduce delays and improve conviction rates.
Overall, this arrangement strengthens institutional capacity to deal with caste-based offences effectively.
Option b – Chief Justice of the High Court
The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is based on which legal principle for the protection and advancement of SCs and STs?
a) Doctrine of Severability
b) Doctrine of Preferred Position
c) Doctrine of Protective Discrimination
d) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is grounded in constitutional principles aimed at correcting historical injustice and ensuring equality. It recognizes that formal equality alone is not sufficient to address deep-rooted Social discrimination.
The legal philosophy behind such protective legislation focuses on providing additional safeguards to disadvantaged groups. This ensures that equality is meaningful in practice and not just in principle.
Such doctrines support affirmative state action to uplift marginalized communities and prevent exploitation. The law thus combines punitive and preventive measures to achieve Social justice.
This approach reflects the constitutional commitment to substantive equality and Social transformation.
Option c – Doctrine of Protective Discrimination
Who is authorized to impose and collect a collective fine under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a) District Magistrate
b) State Government
c) Special Court
d) High Court
Explanation: Collective fines are imposed as a deterrent measure in cases involving serious offences affecting community harmony. This provision allows authorities to penalize groups involved in acts of atrocity or collective wrongdoing.
The authority responsible for imposing such fines is typically a judicial or quasi-judicial body empowered under the Act. This ensures that the penalty is imposed after due legal process and not arbitrarily.
Such measures are intended to discourage group-based violence and promote accountability at a collective level. The collected fine may also be used for victim relief or rehabilitation.
This mechanism strengthens deterrence and reinforces the seriousness of offences under the Act.
Option b – State Government
In prosecutions under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court may presume
a) Abetment
b) Common intention
c) Common object
d) All of the above
Explanation: The SC/ST Act includes special evidentiary provisions to strengthen prosecution in cases of caste-based offences. These provisions help address challenges faced in proving such crimes due to Social and structural barriers.
Courts are allowed to draw certain legal presumptions based on available evidence, especially in cases involving group conduct or intent. This helps ensure that offenders do not escape liability due to lack of direct evidence.
Such presumptions are carefully structured within the legal framework to balance fairness and effective prosecution. They are applied only under specific conditions defined by law.
This strengthens the overall effectiveness of the Act by improving conviction rates and ensuring justice for victims.
Option d – All of the above
Which Section of the SC/ST Act, 1989 incorporates certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code?
a) Section 12
b) Section 10
c) Section 6
d) Section 8
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act integrates provisions of the Indian Penal Code to ensure that offences are effectively prosecuted under a combined legal framework. This allows overlapping legal provisions to be applied where necessary.
Such incorporation ensures that offences not specifically defined under the Act can still be addressed using general criminal law provisions. This strengthens the legal coverage available for prosecution.
It also ensures consistency between special laws and general criminal law, avoiding legal gaps in enforcement. The objective is to create a comprehensive legal mechanism for justice delivery.
This integration enhances the effectiveness of the Act in addressing complex criminal situations involving caste-based atrocities.
Option c – Section 6
Under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which legal relief is prohibited?
a) Anticipatory bail
b) Post-arrest bail
c) Probation
d) All of the above
Explanation: Special criminal statutes often modify or restrict the application of general procedural safeguards available under ordinary criminal law. The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is designed as a protective framework to ensure strict enforcement against caste-based offences and to prevent misuse of procedural leniency that could weaken prosecution.
One of its key features is the restriction of certain pre-trial reliefs that are normally available in criminal cases. This is done to ensure that accused persons in serious atrocity cases do not evade arrest or delay investigation through procedural protections that may undermine the intent of the law.
The Act also strengthens victim protection and ensures that investigations proceed without undue interference. It reflects a legislative intent to prioritize Social justice and accountability over procedural discretion in specific categories of offences.
This structure ensures that the law remains effective in addressing historical and systemic discrimination while maintaining judicial oversight in appropriate stages of trial.
Option a – Anticipatory bail
Under which Section of the SC/ST Act, 1989 is anticipatory bail explicitly barred?
a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 18
d) Section 19
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act includes specific provisions that limit the availability of anticipatory bail to accused persons. This is intended to ensure that individuals accused of serious caste-based offences do not avoid arrest during the early stages of investigation.
Anticipatory bail is a preventive legal remedy under general criminal law that allows a person to seek protection from arrest. However, in cases involving atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, the legislature has restricted this relief due to the seriousness and sensitivity of such offences.
This restriction ensures that investigation agencies can carry out their duties without procedural obstacles. It also reflects the intent to provide stronger protection to victims from intimidation or influence by accused persons.
The provision is part of a broader legal framework that strengthens enforcement and prioritizes effective investigation and prosecution.
Option c – Section 18
An offence under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 must be investigated by a police officer of at least which rank?
a) Sub-Inspector
b) Inspector
c) Deputy Superintendent
d) Superintendent
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act prescribes specific procedural safeguards for investigation to ensure impartiality and seriousness in handling such cases. One of these safeguards is the requirement that investigation be conducted by a senior police officer rather than a lower-ranking official.
This provision is intended to ensure that investigations are handled with greater responsibility, reducing the chances of bias, negligence, or improper handling. It also reflects the seriousness of offences covered under the Act, which involve violation of Fundamental Rights and dignity.
Higher-ranking officers are expected to have greater experience and administrative authority, which helps in conducting more effective and fair investigations. This strengthens public confidence in the justice delivery process.
Overall, this requirement enhances procedural integrity and ensures accountability in the investigative process.
Option c – Deputy Superintendent
Which of the following powers is not granted to a Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
Explanation: Special Courts under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act are established to ensure speedy and effective trial of cases involving caste-based offences. These courts are empowered with enhanced judicial authority to handle sensitive matters efficiently.
Their powers include conducting trial procedures, imposing penalties, and taking necessary legal steps to ensure justice delivery. However, certain administrative or non-judicial functions remain outside their jurisdiction.
The separation of powers ensures that judicial bodies focus on adjudication rather than executive or policing functions. This maintains the balance between investigation, prosecution, and trial stages.
The structure of Special Courts is designed to streamline judicial processes while preserving constitutional principles of separation of powers.
Option b – Authorize non-police investigation
Which of the following actions cannot be performed by a Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
Explanation: Special Courts established under the SC/ST Act are primarily judicial bodies responsible for conducting trials and delivering judgments in cases involving atrocities. Their role is strictly confined to adjudication based on evidence and legal procedure.
While they have wide powers within the trial process, certain actions that fall under executive or administrative authority are not part of their jurisdiction. This ensures that the Judiciary does not overlap with investigative or enforcement agencies.
The design of the Act clearly separates investigation, prosecution, and adjudication to maintain fairness and institutional balance. This structure also helps prevent concentration of power within a single authority.
Thus, Special Courts function strictly within judicial boundaries, ensuring procedural fairness and legal discipline.
Option d – Impose a collective fine
In a prosecution under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused cannot claim as a defense
a) Act was in self-defense
b) They belong to the same caste as the victim
c) Harm caused was minor and not actionable
d) Both (A) and (C)
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is a special legislation designed to provide enhanced protection to marginalized communities against caste-based offences. It modifies certain general defenses available under criminal law to ensure effective enforcement.
In cases involving atrocities, certain justifications that might otherwise be considered in general criminal law are not accepted as valid defenses. This is because the Act focuses on protecting dignity and preventing abuse of vulnerable groups.
The law is structured to prevent dilution of accountability by restricting reliance on certain excuses or mitigating claims that could weaken prosecution. This ensures stronger deterrence and faster justice delivery.
Overall, the framework prioritizes victim protection and strict enforcement over broad application of general defenses.
Option d – Both (A) and (C)
A Court of Session designated as a Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is meant to ensure
a) Speedy trial
b) Time-bound trial
c) Special protection to victims
d) All of the above
Explanation: Special Courts under the SC/ST Act are established to ensure that cases involving caste-based atrocities are handled with urgency and sensitivity. These courts are typically designated from existing Sessions Courts to utilize their judicial expertise.
The primary objective is to ensure speedy and efficient trial of offences, reducing delays that often occur in regular judicial proceedings. Timely justice is crucial in such cases due to their social and emotional impact on victims.
These courts also ensure focused attention on cases involving marginalized communities, improving the quality of adjudication. The system is designed to strengthen both procedural efficiency and substantive justice.
Overall, Special Courts play a key role in ensuring effective enforcement of protective legislation.
Option a – Speedy trial
Under which Section of the SC/ST Rules, 1995, is the Constitution of the District Level Vigilance and Monitoring Committee provided?
a) Section 18
b) Section 19
c) Section 17
d) Section 16
Explanation: The SC/ST Rules, 1995 provide a detailed administrative framework for monitoring the implementation of the Act at the district level. These rules establish committees and mechanisms to oversee enforcement and review cases regularly.
District Level Vigilance and Monitoring Committees play an important role in ensuring that the provisions of the Act are effectively implemented. They review cases, monitor investigations, and coordinate between administrative authorities.
Such institutional mechanisms are essential for ensuring accountability and preventing lapses in enforcement. They also help in addressing grievances and improving the effectiveness of the legal framework.
This structured monitoring system strengthens the implementation of protective legislation at the grassroots level.
Option c – Section 17
The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996, has multiple objectives. Which of the following is not among them?
a) Promoting self-governance
b) Recognizing traditional rights
c) Establishing autonomous regions
d) Protecting tribal communities from exploitation
Explanation: The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas Act was enacted to strengthen local self-governance in tribal regions. It aims to empower Gram Sabhas and ensure community participation in decision-making processes.
The Act focuses on protecting traditional rights, promoting self-governance, and ensuring that development aligns with local customs and needs. It also aims to prevent exploitation of tribal communities by strengthening institutional control at the grassroots level.
However, it does not aim to create separate autonomous political regions, as that falls outside its constitutional scope. Instead, it works within the existing Panchayati Raj framework.
The Act reflects a decentralized governance approach, ensuring tribal participation in administration and development.
Option c – Establishing autonomous regions
When did the Right to Information Act receive the President’s assent? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) 15th May, 2005
b) 5th June, 2005
c) 15th June, 2005
d) 12th October, 2005
Explanation: The Right to Information framework was enacted to strengthen transparency in governance by allowing citizens access to information held by public authorities. It was introduced as part of broader administrative reforms aimed at improving accountability in government functioning.
The Act marked a major shift in the relationship between citizens and the state, establishing information as a legal entitlement rather than a discretionary privilege. It empowered individuals to seek records, documents, and details of public decision-making processes.
Its passage followed sustained public demand for greater openness in administration and was supported by civil society movements advocating transparency. The law also established institutional mechanisms such as Information Commissions to enforce compliance.
Overall, it represents a key milestone in democratic governance by promoting openness, accountability, and participatory administration.
Option c – 15th June, 2005
Which statement correctly describes the Right to Information? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) It is a political right
b) It is a constitutional right
c) It is a legal right
d) It is a social right
Explanation: The Right to Information is a legal framework that enables citizens to access information held by public authorities. It is designed to promote transparency in government operations and reduce corruption by making administrative processes more open to public scrutiny.
This right is implemented through a structured legal mechanism that obligates public institutions to respond to information requests within a specified time frame. It also defines exemptions where disclosure may be restricted for reasons such as national security or privacy.
The law strengthens democratic participation by allowing citizens to monitor governance and hold public officials accountable. It also enhances trust between the government and the public by ensuring transparency in decision-making.
Overall, it functions as an important tool for participatory democracy and administrative accountability.
Option c – It is a legal right
What is the total number of judges in the Supreme Court of India, including the Chief Justice? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) Seven
b) Nine
c) Thirty-three
d) Twenty-five
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country and consists of a fixed sanctioned strength of judges, including the Chief Justice of India. This strength is determined by parliamentary legislation and can be revised based on judicial workload and institutional requirements.
The composition of the Court ensures that it can effectively handle constitutional, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction. The number of judges is periodically reviewed to address increasing case pendency and ensure timely justice delivery.
The Chief Justice acts as the head of the Judiciary and plays a key administrative role in allocating cases and managing judicial functions. The remaining judges assist in hearing and deciding cases across various benches.
This structure ensures the efficient functioning of the apex court in handling complex legal matters.
Option c – Thirty-three
What was the originally sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) 24
b) 20
c) 18
d) 34
Explanation: The sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court has evolved over time in response to increasing judicial workload and expanding jurisdiction. Initially, the Court was constituted with a smaller number of judges when it was established after the adoption of the Constitution.
As the country’s Population, legal complexity, and litigation increased, the need for more judges became evident. This led to gradual increases in sanctioned strength through legislative amendments.
The adjustment of judicial strength ensures that the Supreme Court can manage its expanding responsibilities effectively. It also helps reduce delays and improves access to justice.
Thus, the original strength reflects the early structure of the Judiciary before expansion due to growing demands.
Option d – 34
What is the present sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court of India? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 34
Explanation: The current sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court reflects legislative decisions taken to address increasing case backlog and judicial workload. The number is periodically revised to ensure efficient functioning of the apex court.
This strength includes the Chief Justice of India and other judges who together form benches to hear constitutional, civil, and criminal matters. The allocation of judges also helps in dividing workload across different jurisdictions.
The increase in sanctioned strength over time reflects the growing complexity of legal issues in a large democratic system. It ensures better case management and timely delivery of judgments.
On which date was the Supreme Court of India formally inaugurated? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) 27 January, 1950
b) 28 January, 1950
c) 29 January, 1950
d) 30 January, 1950
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India was established under the Constitution of India as the apex judicial body of the country. It began functioning shortly after the Constitution came into force in 1950.
Its inauguration marked the transition from the colonial judicial system to an independent constitutional Judiciary. The Court was given the responsibility of interpreting the Constitution and ensuring the rule of law.
It replaced earlier judicial institutions and became the final court of appeal in India. Over time, it has developed extensive constitutional jurisprudence and played a key role in shaping Indian democracy.
The establishment of the Supreme Court represents a foundational moment in India’s judicial History.
Option b – 28 January, 1950
Which court delivered a landmark judgment in September 2003 emphasizing the status of women in India? ( WBPRB GKmcq Daily Quiz )
a) Supreme Court of India
b) Local Courts
c) Special Courts
d) High Court, Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: Landmark judgments relating to gender equality are typically delivered by higher constitutional courts in India. These decisions interpret constitutional provisions to strengthen the legal and social status of women.
Such judgments often address issues like discrimination, workplace equality, and protection of rights under Fundamental Rights provisions. They play an important role in shaping progressive legal interpretations.
The Judiciary uses constitutional principles to expand the scope of equality and dignity for women, ensuring that laws are applied in a socially just manner. These decisions often have nationwide impact.
Overall, such rulings contribute significantly to advancing gender justice in India.
Option a – Supreme Court of India
By what means was the Supreme Court of India established? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Through an Act of Parliament in 1950
b) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
c) Under the Indian Government Act, 1953
d) By the Constitution of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India was established under the Constitution, which came into effect on 26 January 1950. It replaced earlier judicial institutions and became the highest court in the country.
Its establishment was part of the constitutional framework designed to create an independent Judiciary. The Court was entrusted with safeguarding Fundamental Rights and interpreting constitutional provisions.
Unlike colonial-era courts, it derives its authority directly from the Constitution, making it a key pillar of Indian democracy. It also has jurisdiction over constitutional, civil, and criminal matters.
This makes it an essential institution in maintaining the rule of law in the country.
Option d – By the Constitution of India
Which statement about the Supreme Court of India is incorrect? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
c) It cannot hear cases from Court-martial but can hear from any High Court or Tribunal
d) It can hear cases from Court-martial, High Courts, and Tribunals
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India is the apex judicial body with the authority to hear appeals from High Courts and tribunals, as well as matters involving constitutional interpretation. It plays a central role in maintaining judicial consistency across the country.
It has broad jurisdiction, including appellate, advisory, and constitutional functions. However, certain procedural and jurisdictional limits are defined under the Constitution to maintain judicial hierarchy and specialization.
The Court also hears matters from various judicial bodies, including certain military-related tribunals under specific conditions, reflecting its wide jurisdictional reach.
Its structure ensures both finality and uniformity in judicial decision-making across India.
Option c – It cannot hear cases from Court-martial but can hear from any High Court or Tribunal
Who has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) The President of India
b) Parliament
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Law Commission
Explanation: The strength of the Supreme Court is not fixed permanently in the Constitution and can be changed based on the needs of the judicial system. As the volume of cases increases over time, adjustments are made to ensure timely justice delivery.
This power is exercised through legislative action, reflecting the authority of Parliament in matters of judicial administration. The objective is to maintain an adequate number of judges so that the workload of the apex court can be managed efficiently.
Such changes are typically made after considering judicial pendency, complexity of cases, and recommendations from institutional studies. The increase in strength helps improve case disposal rates and reduces delays in justice delivery.
This mechanism ensures that the Judiciary remains functional and responsive to the evolving demands of the legal system.
Option b – Parliament
To whom does a Supreme Court judge submit a resignation? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Chief Justice
b) President
c) Prime Minister
d) Law Minister
Explanation: The resignation process for judges of the Supreme Court is governed by constitutional provisions that ensure judicial independence while maintaining procedural clarity. A judge is required to submit their resignation to the appropriate constitutional authority.
This ensures that the resignation is formally recorded and processed in accordance with established legal procedure. It reflects the structured nature of judicial appointments and exits within the constitutional framework.
The system ensures transparency and prevents informal or arbitrary resignation processes. It also maintains the dignity and institutional integrity of the highest court in the country.
This mechanism is part of the broader framework governing judicial administration in India.
Option b – President
How can a Supreme Court judge be removed from office? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) At the discretion of the Chief Justice
b) By the President directly
c) By the President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice
d) By the President on Parliament’s recommendation
Explanation: The removal of a Supreme Court judge is governed by a strict constitutional process designed to protect judicial independence. Judges cannot be removed arbitrarily and enjoy security of tenure to ensure impartial decision-making.
Removal requires a formal procedure involving investigation and approval through the constitutional framework. This typically includes legislative participation and executive action based on established findings.
The process ensures that removal is based only on proven grounds of misconduct or incapacity. It prevents external pressure on judges and maintains the independence of the Judiciary.
This high threshold reflects the importance of judicial autonomy in a constitutional democracy.
Option d – By the President on Parliament’s recommendation
What procedure must precede the removal of a Supreme Court judge by the President? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Inquiry by the CBI
b) Inquiry by the Chief Justice of India
c) Report from the Bar Council of India
d) Impeachment by Parliament
Explanation: The removal of a Supreme Court judge involves a detailed constitutional process that must be followed before any final action is taken. This ensures that judges are protected from arbitrary dismissal and can perform their duties independently.
The process typically begins with a formal motion and inquiry to establish grounds for removal. Only after due investigation and approval through the required institutional channels can the Matter proceed further.
This mechanism ensures fairness and safeguards judicial independence by requiring a high level of scrutiny before removal. It also reinforces the separation of powers between the Judiciary and the executive.
Such safeguards are essential to maintain public confidence in the judicial system.
Option d – Impeachment by Parliament
What is the retirement age of Supreme Court judges? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) 62 years
b) 63 years
c) 64 years
d) 65 years
Explanation: The retirement age of Supreme Court judges is constitutionally fixed to ensure regular judicial turnover and maintain efficiency in the judicial system. This allows for the Periodic induction of new judges with fresh perspectives.
The retirement age also ensures that judges serve during their most productive years while preventing prolonged tenure that may affect institutional dynamism. It balances experience with renewal within the judiciary.
This provision is uniform for all judges of the Supreme Court, including the Chief Justice. It is part of the constitutional framework governing judicial service conditions.
Overall, it helps maintain a stable and efficient judicial system.
Option d – 65 years
Who decides the salaries of Supreme Court judges? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Pay Commission appointed by the President
b) Law Commission
c) Parliament
d) Council of Ministers
Explanation: The salaries and service conditions of Supreme Court judges are determined through legislative provisions to ensure financial independence of the judiciary. This is essential for maintaining impartiality and preventing external influence.
Judicial salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which ensures that they are not subject to annual parliamentary vote. This provides security of tenure and financial stability for judges.
Periodic revisions may be made through appropriate legislative processes to account for inflation and administrative needs. This ensures that judicial remuneration remains adequate and fair.
Such arrangements strengthen the independence and dignity of the judiciary.
Option c – Parliament
After retirement, where can Supreme Court judges practice law? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Only in the Supreme Court
b) Only in High Courts
c) In both Supreme Court and High Courts
d) In none of the courts
Explanation: Post-retirement restrictions for judges are designed to maintain judicial independence and prevent conflicts of interest. These rules ensure that judges do not immediately influence or benefit from their former judicial positions.
Certain courts or tribunals may have restrictions on where retired judges can practice law. This is intended to preserve public confidence in judicial impartiality and prevent misuse of insider knowledge.
These provisions are part of broader ethical standards governing the judiciary. They help maintain the integrity of judicial decisions even after retirement.
Overall, they ensure a clear separation between judicial service and legal practice after tenure ends.
Option d – In none of the courts
Who appoints the Acting Chief Justice of India? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Prime Minister
c) President
d) Law Minister
Explanation: When the position of Chief Justice of India is temporarily vacant or the incumbent is unable to perform duties, an Acting Chief Justice is appointed to ensure continuity in judicial administration.
This arrangement ensures that the Supreme Court continues to function smoothly without administrative disruption. The Acting Chief Justice performs all essential duties of the office during the interim period.
The appointment is made through constitutional authority to maintain procedural consistency. It reflects the importance of uninterrupted judicial leadership in the apex court.
This mechanism ensures stability in the functioning of the highest judicial institution in the country.
Option c – President
How are Supreme Court judges appointed by the President? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Following Rajya Sabha recommendation
b) On Lok Sabha advice
c) On Prime Minister’s advice
d) In consultation with the Chief Justice
Explanation: The appointment of Supreme Court judges is carried out through a constitutional process involving consultation with key judicial authorities. This ensures that appointments are made based on merit, experience, and institutional recommendations.
The system is designed to maintain judicial independence while allowing executive participation in formal appointment procedures. This balance ensures both accountability and autonomy in the selection process.
Consultation with senior judicial figures helps ensure that only qualified candidates are appointed to the apex court. This strengthens the credibility and efficiency of the judiciary.
Overall, the process reflects a cooperative constitutional framework between the judiciary and the executive.
Option d – In consultation with the Chief Justice
When are Adhoc judges appointed in the Supreme Court? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) When judges are on long leave
b) When permanent appointments are unavailable
c) When there is an abnormal rise in pending cases
d) When quorum of judges is unavailable
Explanation: Adhoc judges are appointed in the Supreme Court to address exceptional situations where there is a temporary increase in workload or shortage of judges. This ensures that the functioning of the Court is not disrupted.
Such appointments are made only under specific conditions and for a limited duration. The purpose is to assist in clearing pending cases and maintaining judicial efficiency.
This mechanism ensures flexibility in judicial administration without altering the permanent structure of the Court. It helps manage extraordinary caseloads effectively.
Overall, it is a temporary measure to ensure uninterrupted justice delivery.
Option d – When quorum of judges is unavailable
In which courts does the Constitution allow appointment of Adhoc judges? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Supreme Court
b) High Courts
c) District and Session Courts
d) All of the above
Explanation: The constitutional framework for the judiciary in India allows for temporary judicial appointments to ensure that the functioning of courts is not hampered due to shortage of judges or unexpected rise in workload. This provision is designed to maintain continuity in justice delivery across different levels of the judicial system.
Such temporary arrangements are made to address situations where pending cases increase significantly or when regular appointments are delayed. The objective is to prevent delays in hearings and ensure that justice is not affected by administrative constraints.
The system reflects flexibility within the judiciary, allowing higher authorities to appoint additional judges for limited periods. This ensures that the judicial process remains efficient even under exceptional circumstances.
Overall, it strengthens the capacity of courts to handle increased workload without compromising procedural fairness or judicial quality.
Option a – Supreme Court
In which year was the Collegium System for appointing judges adopted in India? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) 1993
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 2004
Explanation: The Collegium System evolved through judicial interpretations related to the appointment of judges in higher judiciary. It was developed to strengthen judicial independence by giving greater role to senior judges in the selection process.
This system emerged through a series of constitutional cases that redefined the meaning of “consultation” in judicial appointments. It shifted the balance of power towards the judiciary in matters of appointment and transfer of judges.
The objective was to reduce executive dominance and ensure that judicial appointments are made based on merit and integrity. Over time, it became the established mechanism for appointing judges to higher courts.
Thus, it represents an important development in the Evolution of India’s judicial appointment process.
Option a – 1993
How many senior judges, along with the Chief Justice, make up the Supreme Court Collegium? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Explanation: The Collegium System is an internal mechanism of the higher judiciary used for recommending appointments and transfers of judges. It consists of the Chief Justice of India along with senior judges of the Supreme Court.
This structure ensures collective decision-making in judicial appointments, reducing the possibility of individual bias. It is designed to maintain transparency and consistency in selecting judges for higher courts.
The composition of the Collegium is fixed to ensure stability and uniformity in decision-making. Senior judges included in the Collegium bring experience and institutional knowledge to the process.
Overall, it plays a crucial role in safeguarding judicial independence in the appointment process.
Option b – 4
What is the minimum number of judges required to hear a case interpreting the Constitution? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Ten
b) Nine
c) Seven
d) Five
Explanation: Constitutional interpretation cases are of great importance as they involve understanding and applying the provisions of the Constitution. To ensure consistency and authoritative judgment, such cases are heard by a special bench.
This bench consists of a minimum number of judges as prescribed under judicial practice to ensure a balanced and comprehensive interpretation. The idea is to avoid conflicting judgments on constitutional matters.
Such benches are constituted to maintain uniformity in constitutional law and to provide clarity on significant legal Questions. They play a key role in shaping constitutional jurisprudence.
This arrangement ensures that important constitutional issues are decided with collective judicial wisdom.
Option d – Five
Which jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court to settle disputes between the Centre and States? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Advisory jurisdiction
b) Appellate jurisdiction
c) Original jurisdiction
d) Constitutional jurisdiction
Explanation: The Supreme Court has a special constitutional role in resolving disputes between different levels of government in India. This ensures smooth functioning of the federal structure by providing an impartial judicial forum.
Such disputes often involve interpretation of constitutional provisions relating to powers and responsibilities of the Centre and States. The Court acts as the final authority in resolving these conflicts.
This jurisdiction ensures balance in the federal system and prevents administrative deadlocks between governments. It strengthens constitutional governance by providing a neutral decision-making body.
Overall, it is a key feature of India’s federal judicial structure.
Option c – Original jurisdiction
The second largest bench ever formed by the Supreme Court was for which case? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
Explanation: Large constitutional benches are constituted when cases involve significant questions of law that require detailed interpretation of constitutional provisions. These benches consist of multiple judges to ensure diverse judicial perspectives.
Such benches are formed in landmark cases where the impact of the judgment is expected to be wide-ranging. The objective is to ensure thorough deliberation and authoritative interpretation of law.
These cases often involve important issues related to constitutional principles, economic policy, or Fundamental Rights. The size of the bench reflects the importance of the legal question involved.
This ensures that the judgment carries strong precedential value in the judicial system.
Option a – Golaknath Case
Which case established the Doctrine of Basic Structure? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Golaknath
b) A.K. Gopalan
c) Keshavananda Bharati
d) Menaka Gandhi
Explanation: The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a foundational principle in Indian constitutional law that limits the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution. It ensures that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered.
This doctrine was developed through judicial interpretation to maintain the core identity of the Constitution. It protects essential elements such as democracy, federalism, and rule of law from being changed through amendments.
The principle acts as a safeguard against excessive constitutional alteration and preserves the balance between different branches of government. It has had a lasting impact on constitutional interpretation in India.
Overall, it is one of the most important contributions of the judiciary to constitutional law.
Option c – Keshavananda Bharati
Which case formally articulated the concept of the Basic Structure of the Constitution? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Indira Sahni Case
b) Shankari Prasad Case
c) Rudal Shah Case
d) Keshavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: The concept of the Basic Structure of the Constitution was formally developed through judicial decisions that examined the extent of Parliament’s amendment powers. These rulings clarified that certain fundamental features of the Constitution are inviolable.
The doctrine ensures that while the Constitution can be amended to meet changing needs, its essential identity must remain intact. This maintains continuity and stability in constitutional governance.
The judiciary used interpretative reasoning to define the boundaries of constitutional amendments. This created a balance between flexibility and permanence in constitutional law.
This principle continues to play a central role in protecting constitutional integrity.
Option d – Keshavananda Bharati Case
We covered all the WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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