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SSC CHSL General Awareness Objective Questions and Answers for Students
Anthony De Mello Trophy is associated with the test cricket series played between:
(a) Australia and India
(b) England and India
(c) England and Australia
(d) South Africa and India
Explanation: This question asks about a famous cricket trophy connected with test matches played between two major international cricket teams. Many bilateral test series are named after legendary cricketers, administrators, or important personalities connected with the sport. Understanding these trophies is an important part of sports General Knowledge and is frequently asked in competitive examinations.
In international cricket, countries often compete for specially named trophies during long-format test series. These trophies symbolize sporting rivalry, historical connections, and contributions made by notable individuals to cricket administration or development. Anthony De Mello was an important personality associated with Indian cricket administration during the early years of organized cricket in India.
To solve the question, one should recall which countries traditionally contest this specific trophy during test cricket matches. Some well-known examples include the Ashes, Border-Gavaskar Trophy, and Pataudi Trophy. By comparing these famous bilateral series and identifying the one linked with Anthony De Mello, the correct pair of nations can be determined logically.
Just as tournaments in football or tennis may honor legendary figures, cricket series trophies also preserve the legacy of influential contributors to the game and strengthen sporting traditions between nations.
This question mainly tests awareness of international cricket History, bilateral test series, and famous trophies associated with different cricket-playing countries.
Option b – England and India
Which one of the following players has the unique distinction of winning 50 Doubles Titles in ATP tour History? ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Leander Paes
(b) Andy Roddick
(c) Novak Djokovic
(d) Roger Federer
Explanation: This question focuses on achievements in professional tennis, particularly in the doubles category of the ATP Tour. Tennis players are often remembered not only for singles success but also for their excellence in doubles competitions, where coordination, teamwork, and strategic NET play are extremely important.
The ATP Tour organizes international men’s tennis tournaments throughout the year. Players earn titles in singles and doubles events separately. Winning a large number of doubles titles reflects long-term consistency, fitness, adaptability with different partners, and exceptional court awareness. Only a few players in tennis History have managed to reach such milestones.
To approach this question, one should compare the players mentioned and identify who is especially known for doubles specialization rather than primarily singles dominance. Some famous players built their legacy mainly through singles Grand Slam victories, while others became legends through doubles and mixed doubles achievements across several tournaments and decades.
A useful way to understand this is by comparing doubles tennis to a synchronized team activity where Communication and positioning are as important as individual talent. Success over many tournaments requires strong partnerships and sustained performance over years.
The question evaluates knowledge of ATP records, tennis History, and notable achievements of internationally recognized tennis players.
Option a – Leander Paes
Which woman tennis player won the maximum number of Grand Slam singles titles in the History of tennis?
(a) Steffi Graf
(b) Martina Navratilova
(c) Billi Jean King
(d) Margaret Court
Explanation: This question relates to the History of women’s tennis and focuses on Grand Slam singles achievements. Grand Slam tournaments are considered the most prestigious events in professional tennis, and success in these competitions defines a player’s legacy and greatness in the sport.
The four Grand Slam tournaments are played annually in different countries and on different court surfaces. Winning multiple singles titles across these tournaments requires extraordinary skill, physical endurance, mental strength, and consistency over many years. Female tennis legends are often compared based on the number of Grand Slam singles championships they have earned during their careers.
To solve this question, one should identify which player among the options is historically recognized for holding the highest count of women’s singles Grand Slam victories. Some players dominated specific eras of tennis with aggressive gameplay, powerful serves, or remarkable consistency, making them icons of the sport worldwide.
This can be compared to athletes repeatedly winning the most difficult championships in their field over several seasons. Maintaining such dominance across changing opponents and evolving playing styles is extremely challenging and highlights exceptional sporting excellence.
The question tests awareness of tennis records, sports personalities, and the historical achievements of famous women athletes in international tennis competitions.
Option d – Margaret Court
Tejaswini Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned World Champion in: ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Athletics
(b) Boxing
(c) Shooting
(d) Wrestling
Explanation: This question concerns an important achievement by an Indian sportswoman in international competition. It asks about the sporting field in which Tejaswini Sawant became the first Indian woman to achieve a world championship title, marking a major milestone for Indian sports History.
India has produced successful athletes in many disciplines such as athletics, boxing, wrestling, and shooting. However, becoming a world champion requires competing against the best players from different countries under intense pressure and highly competitive conditions. Such achievements often inspire future generations of athletes in the country.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the sport most strongly associated with Tejaswini Sawant. Certain sports demand extreme concentration, precision, discipline, and technical accuracy, while others rely more heavily on physical endurance or combat skills. Recognizing her sporting background helps narrow down the correct field.
This achievement can be compared to a student topping an international-level competition after years of training and dedication. Becoming the first person from a country to achieve such recognition creates a lasting impact on national sports development and public inspiration.
The question mainly evaluates knowledge of Indian sports personalities, international championships, and landmark achievements by Indian women athletes.
Option c – Shooting
Which city will host the 2022 Commonwealth Games (CWG)?
(a) Montreal
(b) Colombo
(c) Glasgow
(d) Durban
Explanation: This question is related to international multi-sport events and asks about the host city of the 2022 Commonwealth Games. The Commonwealth Games bring together athletes from countries associated with the Commonwealth and are held every four years in different cities around the world.
Hosting such a major sporting event requires advanced infrastructure, transportation facilities, stadiums, accommodation arrangements, and strong administrative planning. Cities selected for these games often gain international attention and experience economic as well as tourism-related benefits after organizing the event successfully.
To solve this question, one should recall which city was officially selected to organize the 2022 edition of the Commonwealth Games. Some cities frequently host international sporting competitions because they already possess world-class sporting facilities and organizational experience.
This can be understood like a country being chosen to host a global cultural festival because it has the resources and infrastructure necessary to welcome participants from many regions. Sporting events of this scale also strengthen international cooperation and cultural exchange among participating nations.
The question checks awareness of Current Affairs, international sports events, and important host cities associated with global sporting competitions.
Option d – Durban
‘Ryder Cup’ is awarded to the players of:
(a) Baseball
(b) Basketball
(c) Cards
(d) Golf
Explanation: This question asks about the sport associated with the famous Ryder Cup competition. International sporting trophies often become symbols of prestige and rivalry, and the Ryder Cup is regarded as one of the most respected team events in its particular sport.
The Ryder Cup is not an individual championship but a team-based international contest. It involves players representing different regions and competing through formats that require both personal skill and teamwork. The competition is widely followed due to its long History, sportsmanship, and intense rivalry between participating teams.
To answer correctly, one should identify the sport in which players use specialized equipment and compete over carefully designed courses rather than courts or fields commonly associated with team games like basketball or baseball. The event is especially famous in Europe and North America and attracts some of the world’s leading professional players.
This can be compared to a continental championship where elite athletes represent their teams collectively instead of focusing only on individual rankings. Team spirit and strategy become as important as personal performance.
The question mainly tests general sports knowledge, recognition of famous international trophies, and awareness of traditional sporting competitions.
Option d – Golf
Curd is sour due to the presence of ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Lactic Acid
(b) Acetic Acid
(c) Citric Acid
(d) None of these
Explanation: This question is based on basic Chemistry and Food science. It asks about the substance responsible for the sour taste of curd, which forms during the natural fermentation process involving milk and beneficial microorganisms.
When milk is converted into curd, certain bacteria act on the sugar present in milk and produce acidic compounds. This process changes the taste, texture, and chemical nature of milk. Fermentation is widely used in Food preparation because it improves preservation, Digestion, and flavor in many dairy products.
To solve the question, one should identify the Acid commonly produced during milk fermentation. Different Acids are found naturally in fruits, vinegar, and industrial chemicals, but only one is closely connected with curd formation and dairy fermentation. Understanding the source and role of these Acids helps eliminate incorrect options logically.
This process can be compared to dough fermentation in bread-making, where microorganisms transform ingredients and create noticeable physical and chemical changes. In curd formation, the increasing acidity gives the product its characteristic sour taste and thicker consistency.
The question evaluates understanding of Acids, fermentation, microorganisms, and basic chemical changes involved in everyday Food products.
Option a – Lactic Acid
Which of the following has the highest fuel value?
(a) Charcoal
(b) Gasoline
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Natural gas
Explanation: This question deals with fuels and energy content. Fuel value refers to the amount of Heat energy released when a substance burns completely. Different fuels produce different amounts of energy depending on their chemical composition and combustion efficiency.
Fuels are used in transportation, industries, homes, and power generation. Some fuels are Solid, some liquid, and others gaseous. Scientists compare fuels based on factors such as calorific value, Pollution level, storage convenience, and efficiency. A fuel with a higher energy value produces more Heat per unit Mass during combustion.
To answer the question, one should compare the energy-producing capacity of the listed substances. Certain fuels contain lighter elements and release larger amounts of energy when reacting with oxygen. Others may be easier to store or commonly used in vehicles but do not necessarily provide the maximum energy output.
This can be compared to batteries with different power capacities. Even if two batteries appear similar, one may deliver more energy and last longer because of its internal chemical properties.
The question tests knowledge of calorific value, energy resources, combustion principles, and the comparative efficiency of commonly used fuels.
Option c – Hydrogen
The heaviest element known up till 2015 has the atomic number ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) 117
(b) 118
(c) 119
(d) 120
Explanation: This question is based on modern Chemistry and the Periodic Table. It asks about the atomic number of the heaviest chemical element officially known up to the year 2015. Atomic number refers to the number of protons present in the nucleus of an Atom.
Scientists continuously conduct experiments to create heavier synthetic elements using nuclear reactions in advanced laboratories. As atomic numbers increase, elements become increasingly unstable and may exist only for a very short time before undergoing radioactive decay. These discoveries expand the Periodic Table and improve understanding of Atomic Structure.
To solve the question, one should recall which element had been officially recognized as the heaviest during that period. Options with larger atomic numbers represent elements discovered later or not yet confirmed at that time. Knowledge of recent developments in Chemistry and Periodic Table updates helps identify the correct choice.
This process is similar to extending a sequence in mathematics by discovering new terms beyond previously known limits. Scientists gradually add heavier elements as research Technology advances.
The question mainly evaluates awareness of Atomic Structure, Periodic Table developments, and scientific discoveries related to synthetic chemical elements.
Option b – 118
G-15 is a group of
(a) Companies
(b) Developed countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) Non-Aligned Developing countries
Explanation: This question concerns international organizations and economic cooperation among nations. G-15 refers to a group formed to encourage collaboration, dialogue, and mutual support among certain countries in areas such as trade, development, and economic policy.
International groups are often created to address shared concerns and improve cooperation among member nations. Some groups represent industrialized economies, while others focus on the interests of nations facing developmental challenges. These organizations discuss topics like investment, Technology sharing, trade relations, and economic growth strategies.
To answer this question, one should identify the category of countries associated with the G-15. The name itself indicates a collective platform rather than a business organization. Understanding the economic background and objectives of the member nations helps distinguish this group from organizations dominated by highly industrialized countries.
This can be compared to students forming a study group to support each other in improving performance and solving common problems. Similarly, countries cooperate through such forums to strengthen their collective voice in international matters.
The question tests awareness of international affairs, economic organizations, and global cooperation among nations with similar developmental interests.
Option d – Non-Aligned Developing countries
An aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because the Salt undergoes ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Photolysis
(b) Electrolysis
(c) Dialysis
(d) Hydrolysis
Explanation: This question is related to chemical reactions occurring when Salts dissolve in water. Some Salt solutions become acidic, basic, or neutral depending on how their ions interact with water molecules after dissolution.
Copper sulphate is formed from a strong Acid and a relatively weak Base. When dissolved in water, its ions interact with surrounding water molecules and produce changes in hydrogen ion concentration. This process affects the pH of the solution and determines whether it behaves as acidic or alkaline.
To solve this question, one should identify the chemical process responsible for the formation of acidic conditions in aqueous Salt solutions. The incorrect options involve processes related to Light, Electricity, or separation techniques, which are different from the interaction occurring between Salt ions and water molecules.
This can be compared to mixing ingredients in cooking where one component changes the overall taste of the mixture through chemical interaction rather than external heating or mechanical action. In Chemistry, such interactions can significantly alter the properties of a solution.
The question evaluates understanding of Salts, pH behavior, ionic reactions in water, and fundamental concepts of physical Chemistry related to aqueous solutions.
Option d – Hydrolysis
Which of the following Metals do not form amalgam?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) Zinc
(d) Magnesium
Explanation: This question deals with Metallurgy and chemical properties of Metals. An amalgam is a special type of alloy formed when mercury combines with another metal. Many Metals react with mercury to produce amalgams that are useful in industrial and laboratory applications.
Amalgams have been used historically in dentistry, extraction of Metals, and scientific instruments. However, not all Metals combine easily with mercury. The ability to form an amalgam depends on factors such as Atomic Structure, chemical reactivity, and surface properties of the metal involved.
To solve the question, one should identify the metal that resists combining with mercury under ordinary conditions. Some Metals readily form alloys with mercury and are commonly used in amalgamation processes, while others remain comparatively unreactive toward it because of their physical or chemical characteristics.
This can be compared to substances that mix easily with water versus those that resist blending. Even though mercury can combine with many Metals, certain Metals do not readily participate in this alloy formation process.
The question tests understanding of alloys, metallic properties, mercury interactions, and basic concepts of Inorganic Chemistry and Metallurgy.
Option b – Iron
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks? ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Chromium and Nickel
(b) Zinc and Sulphur
(c) Strontium and Barium
(d) Potassium and Mercury
Explanation: This question is related to Chemistry and the science behind fireworks. Fireworks produce brilliant colors because certain chemical Salts emit characteristic shades of Light when heated at very high temperatures during combustion.
Different metallic elements release different colors due to the excitation of electrons. When these excited electrons return to lower energy levels, they emit Light of specific wavelengths. This principle is widely used not only in fireworks but also in flame tests conducted in Chemistry laboratories to identify metallic ions.
To solve the question, one should identify which pair of elements is commonly associated with bright and attractive flame colors used in pyrotechnic displays. Some Metals produce red shades, while others generate green, yellow, or blue colors. The correct pair is widely known for producing vibrant colors in fireworks displays around the world.
This process can be compared to neon signboards that glow with different colors depending on the gas or material used inside them. Similarly, fireworks depend on the chemical behavior of metallic Salts to create colorful visual effects.
The question checks understanding of flame coloration, electron excitation, metallic Salts, and practical applications of Chemistry in entertainment and pyrotechnics.
Option c – Strontium and Barium
Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters?
(a) Radon
(b) Propane
(c) Butane
(d) Methane
Explanation: This question focuses on the practical use of gases as fuels in everyday devices. Cigarette lighters require a gas that is easy to store in liquid form under pressure and can ignite quickly when released into air.
Portable lighters are designed to produce a controlled flame instantly. Therefore, the fuel used must be highly flammable, easily compressible, and safe enough for storage in small containers. Different gases vary in their boiling points, combustibility, and storage properties, making only certain gases suitable for such applications.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the gas commonly used in refillable and disposable lighters. Some gases listed are rare, unstable, or unsuitable for domestic fuel applications, while others are more commonly used for cooking or industrial purposes rather than compact lighter systems.
This can be compared to choosing the correct battery for a small electronic device. Although many power sources exist, only specific ones meet the size, efficiency, and practicality requirements for portable usage.
The question evaluates knowledge of gaseous fuels, combustion properties, storage under pressure, and common applications of Hydrocarbons in daily life.
Option c – Butane
The chemical used as a fixer or developer in photography is ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Sodium Sulphite
(b) Sodium Sulphide
(c) Sodium Thiosulphate
(d) Sodium Sulphate
Explanation: This question is based on the Chemistry of traditional photography. Before digital cameras became common, photographic films required chemical processing to make captured images visible and permanent after exposure to Light.
Photographic films contain Light-sensitive compounds that undergo chemical changes when exposed inside a camera. During development, certain chemicals help reveal the image, while fixing agents remove the unreacted Light-sensitive material to prevent further exposure and image damage. Without this process, photographs would fade or darken completely.
To solve this question, one should identify the compound commonly used in photographic fixing. The correct chemical has a special ability to dissolve unexposed silver compounds from the film surface, thereby stabilizing the image permanently. Other listed substances may have industrial or laboratory uses but are not standard photographic fixing agents.
This process is similar to applying a protective coating over artwork after completion so that the image remains preserved for a long time. In photography, the fixer ensures the picture no longer reacts to ordinary Light.
The question tests understanding of photographic chemistry, silver-based film processing, and practical industrial uses of chemical compounds.
Option c – Sodium Thiosulphate
Movement of outer electrons to the inner orbits of an Atom produces
(a) α-ray
(b) β-ray
(c) γ-ray
(d) X-ray
Explanation: This question concerns Atomic Structure and radiation produced during electron transitions inside atoms. Electrons occupy different energy levels around the nucleus, and changes in their positions are associated with the release or absorption of energy.
When an electron from a higher energy orbit moves to a lower energy orbit closer to the nucleus, excess energy is emitted in the form of electromagnetic radiation. The type of radiation produced depends on the amount of energy released during this transition and the location of the electron movement within the Atom.
To answer the question, one should identify which radiation is specifically associated with electron transitions rather than changes occurring inside the atomic nucleus. Some radiations are produced during radioactive decay involving particles from the nucleus, whereas others arise due to electron rearrangements around the nucleus.
This phenomenon can be compared to a ball rolling from a higher step to a lower one, releasing energy during the movement. Similarly, electrons release energy when shifting from outer to inner energy levels.
The question evaluates understanding of atomic models, electromagnetic radiation, electron transitions, and the origin of different types of atomic emissions.
Option a – α-ray
Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma isotope or not? ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Lead Plate
(b) Spectrophotometer
(c) Microscope
(d) Scintillation Counter
Explanation: This question relates to nuclear science and radiation detection. Gamma isotopes emit high-energy electromagnetic radiation that cannot be identified using ordinary visual observation or basic laboratory equipment designed for non-radioactive substances.
Detecting radioactive contamination in drinking water is important for environmental safety, medical research, and nuclear monitoring. Special instruments are designed to measure invisible radiation by detecting emitted particles or energy waves. These instruments are highly sensitive and can identify even small amounts of radioactive material.
To solve this question, one should recognize which device is specifically used for radiation detection. Some listed instruments are meant for optical studies, magnification, or physical shielding, but only one is designed to count or measure radioactive emissions effectively.
This can be compared to using a smoke detector to sense invisible smoke particles in air. Although humans may not immediately notice the danger, specialized equipment can identify the presence of harmful substances accurately.
The question tests understanding of radioactive isotopes, nuclear instrumentation, environmental monitoring, and scientific devices used for detecting gamma radiation.
Option d – Scintillation Counter
A radioactive substance has a half-life of four months. Three-fourths of the substance would decay in
(a) 3 Months
(b) 4 Months
(c) 8 Months
(d) 12 Months
Explanation: This question is based on radioactive decay and the concept of half-life. Half-life refers to the time required for half of a radioactive substance to decay into another form through natural nuclear processes.
Radioactive materials decay gradually and predictably over time. After one half-life period, only half of the original material remains. After another equal interval, half of the remaining quantity decays again. This process continues continuously and forms the basis for many applications in medicine, archaeology, and nuclear science.
To solve the question, one should calculate how much time is required for only one-fourth of the original material to remain, since three-fourths would have already decayed by then. Understanding repeated halving helps determine the correct duration logically without confusion.
This process can be compared to repeatedly cutting a cake into halves. After the first cut, half remains; after the second similar reduction, only one-fourth of the original quantity is left.
The question evaluates understanding of radioactive decay, exponential reduction, nuclear Physics concepts, and the practical application of half-life calculations.
Option c – 8 Months
What was the fissionable material used in the bombs dropped at Nagasaki (Japan) in 1945? ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) Uranium
(b) Potassium
(c) Sodium
(d) Plutonium
Explanation: This question is related to world History and nuclear science. During World War II, atomic bombs were developed using special radioactive materials capable of undergoing nuclear fission and releasing enormous amounts of energy.
Nuclear fission occurs when the nucleus of a heavy Atom splits into smaller parts after being struck by particles such as neutrons. This process releases tremendous Heat, radiation, and shock waves. Different fissionable materials were researched during wartime because only certain radioactive elements could sustain a rapid chain reaction required for atomic explosions.
To answer the question correctly, one should recall the specific material associated with the bomb dropped on Nagasaki. Another well-known bomb used a different radioactive element, which often creates confusion among students studying the historical event.
This can be compared to using different fuel types for specialized machines where each fuel has distinct properties and applications. In nuclear weapons, the choice of radioactive material greatly affects design and destructive capability.
The question tests awareness of nuclear chemistry, historical events of World War II, and the scientific principles behind atomic weapons development.
Option d – Plutonium
Source of Vitamin C is
(a) Oxalic Acid
(b) Nitric Acid
(c) Maleic Acid
(d) Ascorbic Acid
Explanation: This question concerns Nutrition and biochemistry. Vitamin C is an essential nutrient required by the human body for maintaining healthy tissues, supporting immunity, and assisting in various metabolic functions.
Vitamins are Organic compounds needed in small amounts for proper growth and body functioning. Vitamin C is especially important for wound healing, collagen formation, and resistance against certain diseases caused by nutritional deficiency. Many fruits and vegetables naturally contain this vitamin in significant quantities.
To solve the question, one should identify the chemical name associated with Vitamin C. The other substances mentioned belong to different categories of Acids commonly found in industrial chemicals or natural biological processes but are not recognized as this particular vitamin.
This can be compared to knowing both the common name and scientific name of a familiar object. Just as water is chemically known as H2O, vitamins also have scientific names used in chemistry and Biology.
The question evaluates understanding of vitamins, nutritional chemistry, biochemical terminology, and the scientific identification of essential nutrients.
Option d – Ascorbic acid
After whom is the Magsaysay Award named? ( SSC CHSL General Awareness Questions and Answers )
(a) A former Prime Minister of Australia
(b) A former President of the Philippines
(c) A former King of Thailand
(d) A former President of Indonesia
Explanation: This question relates to international awards and notable political personalities. The Magsaysay Award is regarded as one of Asia’s most respected honors and is often associated with public service, leadership, journalism, and Social contribution.
The award was established to recognize individuals or organizations making exceptional contributions to society in Asia. It honors qualities such as integrity, courage, public service, and humanitarian work. Many distinguished leaders, activists, teachers, and reformers from different countries have received this award over the years.
To solve the question, one should identify the prominent historical figure after whom the award was named. The individual held an important leadership position in an Asian country and became widely admired for governance and public service ideals.
This can be compared to institutions naming awards after influential personalities whose achievements inspire future generations. Such awards preserve the memory and values associated with those leaders.
The question tests knowledge of international awards, Asian political History, and important personalities associated with humanitarian and public service recognition.
Option b – A former President of the Philippines
The WISE Prize, known as the Nobel Prize for education, was conferred by the WISE summit in Doha in 2012 on
(a) Dr. Yash Pal
(b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Madhav Chavan
Explanation: This question is connected with international recognition in the field of education. The WISE Prize honors individuals who have made remarkable contributions toward improving education systems, accessibility, innovation, and learning opportunities across society.
Education awards of this level recognize efforts that create large-scale positive Social impact. Recipients are usually individuals who promote literacy, child education, Social reform, educational Technology, or community-based learning initiatives. Such recognition highlights the importance of education in national and global development.
To answer the question, one should identify the Indian personality associated most strongly with educational reform and learning initiatives around that period. The listed individuals are known for contributions in different areas such as science, policy, Agriculture, or education, so understanding their primary fields helps eliminate incorrect choices.
This can be compared to honoring a scientist for groundbreaking research or an athlete for exceptional sporting performance. Educational contributions are similarly celebrated because they influence future generations.
The question evaluates awareness of educational awards, Indian achievers, and international recognition related to Social and academic development.
Option d – Dr. Madhav Chavan
The Indian who won the Grammy Award 2015 in the new age album category is
(a) Musician Ricky Kej
(b) Author Neela Vaswani
(c) Singer Kavita Krishnamurthy
(d) Musician A.R. Rehman
Explanation: This question is related to international music awards and Indian achievers in global entertainment. The Grammy Awards are among the most prestigious honors in the music industry and recognize excellence across various musical genres and production categories.
The “new age album” category generally includes music designed to create a calming, meditative, or emotionally uplifting Atmosphere. Artists in this field often combine classical, instrumental, electronic, or world music elements to produce unique sound experiences appreciated internationally.
To solve the question, one should identify the Indian personality associated with music composition and recognized globally around 2015 for contributions in this particular category. Some individuals listed are writers or playback singers, while others are internationally known for composing and producing music albums.
This achievement can be compared to a filmmaker winning an Oscar in a specialized category after years of creative experimentation and dedication. Recognition at the Grammy level reflects worldwide appreciation and technical excellence in music production.
The question tests awareness of international cultural awards, Indian musicians, and important achievements in global music history.
Option a – Musician Ricky Kej
Sugatha Kumari, chosen for the Saraswati Samman 2012, is an eminent poetess in
(a) Tamil
(b) Telugu
(c) Kannada
(d) Malayalam
Explanation: This question focuses on Indian literature and literary awards. The Saraswati Samman is one of India’s respected literary honors and is awarded to outstanding literary works written in Indian languages recognized by the Constitution.
Indian literature is highly diverse, with poets and writers contributing in many regional languages. Literary awards often recognize not only artistic excellence but also Social sensitivity, cultural preservation, and emotional depth reflected through poetry, novels, and essays.
To answer this question, one should identify the language in which Sugatha Kumari became famous as a poetess. The options include major South Indian languages, each having rich literary traditions and distinguished writers. Recognizing the regional literary background of the poet helps determine the correct language.
This can be compared to identifying a famous musician based on the musical tradition or language they primarily worked in. Literary figures are often closely associated with the cultural identity of their language and region.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian literature, regional languages, literary awards, and prominent Indian poets.
Option d – Malayalam
Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008.
(a) Amit Kumar
(b) Santosh Sen
(c) Pappu
(d) Saumika Mishra
Explanation: This question concerns national bravery awards presented to children in India for exceptional courage and presence of mind in difficult or dangerous situations. Such awards encourage values like selflessness, responsibility, and bravery among young citizens.
The Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery is one among several bravery honors given to children who perform extraordinary acts, often risking their own safety to protect others or respond courageously during emergencies. These recognitions are usually announced nationally and inspire students across the country.
To solve the question, one should recall the recipient associated with this award for the year 2008. The names listed may belong to individuals recognized in different categories or unrelated contexts, making careful identification necessary.
This can be compared to honoring a student who demonstrates remarkable courage during a crisis, setting an example for others through responsible and fearless action. Such recognition highlights that bravery is not limited by age.
The question tests awareness of Indian national awards, child achievers, and important personalities associated with acts of courage and public recognition.
Option d – Saumika Mishra
Who among the following cricketers was chosen for the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2007?
(a) M.S. Dhoni
(b) Virender Sehwag
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) Rahul Dravid
Explanation: This question is related to Indian sports awards and famous cricketers. The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna, now renamed Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna, is India’s highest sporting honor given for exceptional performance at the international level.
The award recognizes athletes who demonstrate outstanding consistency, leadership, and achievement in their sport over a significant period. Cricket being one of India’s most followed sports, several legendary players have been considered for prestigious national recognition due to their international success.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify which cricketer was honored with this award during the year 2007. The options include highly successful players known for batting, captaincy, or all-round performance, making the question challenging for those unfamiliar with sports awards chronology.
This can be compared to selecting the best-performing student of the year based not only on talent but also on leadership, consistency, and contribution to team success.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian cricket history, sports awards, and achievements of leading cricketers in international competitions.
Option a – M.S. Dhoni
Who was the first lady recipient of the Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) Devika Rani
(b) Sulochana
(c) Uma Devi
(d) Nargis Dutt
Explanation: This question relates to Indian cinema and prestigious film awards. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award is the highest recognition in Indian cinema and honors individuals for lifetime contribution to the film industry.
Indian cinema has a long history with actors, directors, singers, and technicians contributing to its growth across different eras. Receiving this award represents recognition of decades of artistic excellence and influence on the development of Indian films and entertainment Culture.
To solve this question, one should identify the first female personality who received this distinguished honor. The listed actresses belong to different generations of Indian cinema, and each played important roles in shaping the film industry during her career.
This achievement can be compared to a University honoring a pioneering scholar whose work opened opportunities for future generations. Being the first woman recipient gives the award additional historical significance.
The question tests awareness of Indian film history, cinema awards, pioneering women personalities, and contributions to the entertainment industry.
Option a – Devika Rani
Which of the following pairs of Nobel Laureates in Physics was awarded the 2010 Nobel Prize?
(a) David Gross, Frank Wilczek
(b) Andre Geim, Konstantin Novoselov
(c) John C. Mather, George F. Smoot
(d) Albert Fert, Peter Grunberg
Explanation: This question concerns the Nobel Prize in Physics, one of the world’s most prestigious scientific honors. Nobel Prizes are awarded for groundbreaking discoveries that significantly advance human understanding in science and Technology.
Physics Nobel Prizes often recognize discoveries related to Matter, energy, electronics, space, or fundamental physical laws. Scientists receiving these awards usually contribute innovations that later influence industries, Communication systems, medicine, or scientific research worldwide.
To solve the question, one should identify the pair of scientists associated with the Physics Nobel Prize for the year 2010. The listed pairs were recognized in different years for separate achievements, so remembering the timeline of Nobel awards is important.
This can be compared to recognizing inventors whose discoveries completely changed the way modern devices or technologies function. Scientific achievements honored by Nobel committees often influence future generations of research and innovation.
The question evaluates knowledge of Nobel Prize history, famous physicists, and major scientific discoveries recognized internationally.
Option b – Andre Geim, Konstantin Novoselov
In August 2013, who won the International Children’s Peace Prize?
(a) Angela Merkel
(b) Malala Yousafzai
(c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Silvio Berlusconi
Explanation: This question is related to international humanitarian recognition and youth activism. The International Children’s Peace Prize is awarded to young individuals who make exceptional contributions toward children’s rights, education, peace, or Social justice.
Young activists receiving such honors often inspire global awareness about issues affecting children and society. Their efforts may involve promoting education, equality, healthcare, or protection from violence and discrimination. International recognition encourages youth participation in Social change and humanitarian work.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the globally recognized young personality associated with advocacy for education and peace around 2013. The other options represent political leaders or personalities known for entirely different fields.
This can be compared to honoring a student leader whose courage and determination influence millions of people beyond their own community. Recognition at an international level highlights the importance of youth voices in shaping society.
The question tests awareness of international peace awards, global Social activism, and important contemporary personalities connected with education and children’s rights.
Option b – Malala Yousafzai
Girish Karnad is
(a) A recipient of the Jnanpith Award
(b) A well-known playwright and actor
(c) The president of the Film and Television Institute of India Society
(d) All of these
Explanation: This question concerns Indian literature, theatre, cinema, and cultural personalities. Girish Karnad was widely respected for his contributions across multiple creative fields and became one of the most influential figures in modern Indian arts and literature.
Indian cultural figures often contribute in more than one area such as writing, acting, directing, or public service. Some individuals gain recognition through literature while also participating actively in theatre and films. Their achievements may also lead to important leadership positions in cultural institutions.
To solve this question, one should examine all the statements carefully and determine whether they collectively describe the personality mentioned. Understanding the broad range of Girish Karnad’s accomplishments helps identify the most appropriate choice among the options.
This can be compared to a person excelling simultaneously as an author, performer, and administrator in the artistic world. Such multidimensional achievements make cultural personalities highly influential in shaping creative industries.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian literature, theatre personalities, cinema, and major cultural awards associated with distinguished artists.
Option d – All of these
Authors in English from which of the following countries are not eligible to be considered for the Booker Prize?
(a) USA
(b) Commonwealth
(c) Republic of Ireland
(d) Britain
Explanation: This question relates to international literary awards and eligibility criteria. The Booker Prize is one of the most prestigious honors for English-language fiction and is associated with high literary quality and global recognition.
Literary awards often define eligibility based on language, nationality, publication location, or regional association. Over time, the Booker Prize rules have changed, allowing or restricting participation from writers belonging to specific countries or regions.
To answer this question, one should identify which country’s English-language authors were historically excluded from Booker Prize consideration during a certain period. The listed options include countries with strong English literary traditions and close historical connections with the award.
This can be compared to sports tournaments where only players from specific regions are initially allowed to participate until rules expand later. Literary awards also evolve over time in terms of inclusiveness and international participation.
The question tests knowledge of international literature, literary institutions, award eligibility rules, and English-language publishing traditions.
Option a – USA
Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located?
(a) Ludhiana
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Mukasar
(d) Patiala
Explanation: This question concerns Indian cultural institutions and regional Art promotion. Lalit Kala Academies are organizations established to encourage visual arts such as painting, sculpture, and other creative artistic activities.
These academies organize exhibitions, workshops, competitions, and educational programs to support artists and preserve regional artistic traditions. Cultural institutions often function from important administrative or cultural centers within a state or region.
To solve this question, one should identify the city associated with the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy. The listed cities belong to Punjab or nearby regions and are known for different administrative, educational, or cultural importance.
This can be compared to locating the headquarters of a University or museum dedicated to promoting a particular field of knowledge or creativity. Such institutions become centers for artistic development and cultural exchange.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian Art organizations, regional cultural institutions, and important cities connected with artistic administration and promotion.
Option b – Chandigarh
Which one of the following days is not observed in the month of October?
(a) U.N. Day
(b) Indian Air force Day
(c) World Environment Day
(d) International Day of Non-Violence
Explanation: This question is related to important national and international observance days celebrated throughout the year. Such days are organized to spread awareness about global issues, honor institutions, or remember important historical events and personalities.
Different observance days are assigned to specific months and dates by governments, international organizations, or Social institutions. These occasions may focus on peace, Environment, science, defense services, human rights, or international cooperation. Remembering them is important for general awareness and competitive examinations.
To solve this question, one should identify which observance does not fall in October. Some options are directly connected with events commonly remembered during that month, while one is celebrated during another part of the year. Understanding the calendar of important observances helps eliminate incorrect choices systematically.
This can be compared to remembering festival dates in a yearly calendar where most events belong to one season while a different event belongs elsewhere in the year.
The question evaluates awareness of Current Affairs, international observances, national commemorative days, and calendar-based General Knowledge.
Option b – Indian Air force Day
Who gave the idea of cabinet dictatorship?
(a) Laski
(b) Mauir
(c) Lowell
(d) Marriot
Explanation: This question concerns political science and theories related to parliamentary government. The term “cabinet dictatorship” refers to a situation where the executive cabinet becomes extremely powerful within a parliamentary democracy.
In parliamentary systems, the cabinet usually controls administration, legislative planning, and decision-making. Political thinkers and constitutional experts have often debated whether this concentration of power weakens the role of opposition parties or reduces parliamentary independence.
To solve this question, one should identify the political scholar associated with this idea. Different thinkers contributed theories about democracy, sovereignty, constitutional systems, and parliamentary governance, making it necessary to match the concept with the correct scholar.
This can be compared to a School committee where a small leadership group gradually controls most decisions, leaving ordinary members with limited influence. Political scientists study such power concentration to understand democratic balance and accountability.
The question tests understanding of political thought, parliamentary government, constitutional theory, and contributions made by important political scholars.
Option b – Mauir
The secretariat of the convention on Biological Diversity campaign was based in
(a) Italy
(b) Toronto
(c) London
(d) Montreal
Explanation: This question relates to international environmental agreements and global conservation efforts. The Convention on Biological Diversity is an important international treaty focused on protecting Biodiversity, promoting sustainable use of Natural Resources, and ensuring fair sharing of biological benefits.
Environmental treaties often establish permanent secretariats to coordinate meetings, research, Communication, and implementation among participating countries. These offices function as administrative centers supporting global cooperation on environmental protection and ecological sustainability.
To answer this question, one should identify the city where the secretariat associated with this convention was located. Some options are well-known international centers for diplomacy, environmental agencies, or global organizations, which may create confusion unless the administrative headquarters is clearly remembered.
This can be compared to the headquarters of a large international organization managing activities and Communication among many countries working toward a common goal.
The question evaluates awareness of international environmental institutions, Biodiversity conservation efforts, and the locations of important global administrative bodies.
Option d – Montreal
Who called political science an inexact science?
(a) Bodin
(b) Buckle
(c) Bryce
(d) Bluntschli
Explanation: This question concerns political science and the opinions of major scholars regarding the nature of Social sciences. Unlike subjects such as mathematics or Physics, political science studies human behavior, institutions, and governance systems that often change across societies and time periods.
Many thinkers debated whether political science should be considered an exact science because political behavior is influenced by emotions, Culture, Economics, and historical conditions. Since predictions in politics are not always fully certain, some scholars described the discipline as less exact compared to natural sciences.
To solve the question, one should identify the scholar who specifically used the term “inexact science” for political science. The listed thinkers contributed different ideas about law, state, democracy, and political methodology.
This can be compared to weather forecasting where patterns can be studied scientifically, but exact outcomes may still vary because many unpredictable factors influence results. Similarly, politics involves complex human interactions that are difficult to measure precisely.
The question tests understanding of political theory, social science methodology, and the viewpoints of influential political scholars.
Option b – Buckle
Among the following states, which one has adopted the “Neem” tree as the state tree?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra
Explanation: This question is related to Indian states and their officially recognized symbols. Many Indian states adopt state animals, birds, flowers, and trees to represent their ecological identity, cultural traditions, or environmental significance.
The neem tree is widely valued in India for its medicinal, agricultural, and environmental importance. Different parts of the tree are traditionally used in healthcare, Organic farming, and household applications. Because of its usefulness and adaptability, neem is regarded as a highly significant tree in Indian society.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify which state officially selected neem as its state tree. The listed states belong to southern and western India, each having different ecological and cultural associations with particular plant species.
This can be compared to countries selecting national flowers or birds that symbolize their heritage and natural Environment. State symbols help promote ecological awareness and regional identity.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian Geography, environmental symbols, state emblems, and the cultural significance of important plant species.
Option b – Andhra Pradesh
Which one of the following is an example of Monopoly?
(a) Indian Railways
(b) HMT
(c) SPIC
(d) Hindustan Unilever Limited
Explanation: This question concerns Economics and market structures. A monopoly exists when a single producer or organization controls the supply of a particular service or product, leaving little or no direct competition in that sector.
Different market systems operate under varying levels of competition. In perfect competition, many sellers participate, while in monopolistic systems, one organization dominates the market due to government control, infrastructure requirements, or exclusive legal authority.
To solve this question, one should identify the organization that traditionally operated without major competitors in its sector. Some companies listed function in competitive industrial markets where multiple firms exist, whereas one service historically remained under centralized national control.
This situation can be compared to having only one bridge connecting two places, giving complete control over transportation across that route. In Economics, monopolies can influence prices, services, and consumer choices significantly.
The question evaluates understanding of economic systems, market structures, public sector enterprises, and the concept of monopoly in practical contexts.
Option a – Indian Railways
The first President of India who made a 30-minute sortie in the Sukhoi fighter aircraft of the Indian Air force is
(a) K.R. Narayanan
(b) Smt. Pratibha Patil
(c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Explanation: This question relates to Indian political history and defense achievements. It asks about the President of India who became notable for flying in a Sukhoi fighter aircraft of the Indian Air force during an official sortie.
A sortie refers to a mission or flight undertaken by military aircraft for operational or training purposes. Fighter aircraft like the Sukhoi are advanced combat planes requiring specialized training, high physical endurance, and technical understanding due to their speed and maneuverability.
To answer correctly, one should identify the Indian President known for strong interest and involvement in science, Technology, and defense matters. The listed presidents served during different periods, but only one became especially associated with aerospace and scientific contributions.
This can be compared to a national leader personally participating in a highly technical activity to encourage scientific advancement and boost morale among defense personnel.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian Presidents, military aviation, defense-related events, and important moments in India’s scientific and strategic history.
Option c – A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Among the breeds of cows mentioned below, which one is not indigenous?
(a) Gir
(b) Tharparkar
(c) Red-Sindhi
(d) Holstein Friesian
Explanation: This question is related to Animal Husbandry and cattle breeds. Indigenous breeds are those that originated naturally within India and adapted over centuries to local Climate conditions, diseases, and agricultural practices.
Indian cattle breeds are known for qualities such as Heat tolerance, Disease resistance, and suitability for local farming conditions. Some foreign breeds, however, are imported for higher milk production or crossbreeding programs aimed at improving dairy output.
To solve this question, one should identify the breed that did not originate in India. The other breeds listed are traditionally associated with Indian regions and are well known in dairy and agricultural sectors across the country.
This can be compared to distinguishing between native fruit varieties and imported hybrids used for commercial farming. Foreign breeds may offer certain advantages but differ in origin and adaptation characteristics.
The question evaluates understanding of livestock management, indigenous cattle breeds, dairy farming, and agricultural knowledge related to Animal breeding.
Option d – Holstein Friesian
Which of the following is the smallest bird?
(a) Parrot
(b) House sparrow
(c) Pigeon
(d) Hummingbird
Explanation: This question concerns zoology and bird classification. Birds vary greatly in size, from large flightless species to extremely tiny birds capable of rapid wing movement and hovering flight.
Small birds usually possess lightweight bodies, fast metabolism, and specialized feeding habits. Some species are especially famous for their ability to hover near flowers while feeding on nectar. Their wings move extremely rapidly, allowing precise movement in the air.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the bird recognized globally for being the smallest in size among the options listed. The other birds are common household or urban species that are considerably larger in comparison.
This can be compared to comparing different vehicle sizes where motorcycles, cars, and buses clearly differ in dimensions even though all belong to the transportation category. Similarly, bird species vary significantly in body structure and weight.
The question tests knowledge of Animal classification, bird characteristics, and general zoological awareness about species diversity and physical features.
Option d – Hummingbird
The book which contains information about planets is called
(a) Green book
(b) Red book
(c) Yellow book
(d) Blue book
Explanation: This question relates to astronomy and reference publications associated with scientific information. Specialized books and manuals are often categorized by colors or names to indicate the type of information they contain.
Astronomy deals with celestial bodies such as planets, stars, moons, and galaxies. Educational reference books help scientists, students, and researchers organize information regarding planetary positions, movements, and observations. Certain officially recognized publications are associated with astronomical data and observations.
To solve the question, one should identify the title traditionally linked with information about planets and astronomical matters. The options use color-based names, requiring familiarity with standard reference terminology rather than scientific calculations.
This can be compared to directories or manuals used in libraries where specific categories are organized under known titles for easy identification and reference.
The question evaluates awareness of astronomy-related terminology, scientific reference materials, and General Knowledge connected with planetary studies.
Option d – Blue book
The National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Chennai
Explanation: This question is related to agricultural science and research institutions in India. Plant Biotechnology involves the scientific improvement of crops through advanced biological techniques aimed at increasing productivity, Disease resistance, and environmental adaptability.
Research centers dedicated to Biotechnology conduct studies on genetic improvement, tissue Culture, pest resistance, and sustainable agricultural development. Such institutions play a major role in strengthening Food security and supporting farmers through scientific innovation.
To solve this question, one should identify the city where this important research institution is located. The options include major Indian metropolitan and research-oriented cities, each known for educational, industrial, or scientific importance.
This can be compared to locating the headquarters of a specialized University department where scientists focus on solving agricultural challenges using modern laboratory methods and Technology.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian scientific institutions, agricultural Biotechnology, research infrastructure, and locations associated with advanced plant science studies.
Option a – New Delhi
The oldest mutual fund in India is
(a) Unit Trust of India
(b) SBI Mutual Fund
(c) PNB Mutual Fund
(d) BOB Mutual Fund
Explanation: This question concerns banking, finance, and investment systems in India. Mutual funds are financial institutions that collect Money from many investors and invest it collectively in shares, bonds, or other financial assets under professional management.
The mutual fund system helps ordinary investors participate in financial markets without individually managing complex investment decisions. Over time, India developed several public and private mutual fund organizations to encourage savings and long-term investment planning.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the earliest mutual fund institution established in India. Some organizations listed entered the financial market later, while one became historically significant for pioneering the mutual fund concept in the country.
This can be compared to the first public library established in a city, which later inspires the development of many similar institutions serving broader public needs. Early financial institutions often shape future economic systems and investor habits.
The question tests awareness of Indian financial history, investment institutions, mutual fund development, and the Evolution of organized savings mechanisms in India.
Option a – Unit Trust of India
Baba Amte is famous as a
(a) Social worker
(b) Singer
(c) Painter
(d) Politician
Explanation: This question relates to Indian social reformers and humanitarian work. Baba Amte became widely respected for dedicating his life to serving marginalized sections of society, especially people affected by serious diseases and social discrimination.
Social workers often contribute by establishing rehabilitation centers, promoting education, fighting inequality, and improving living conditions for disadvantaged communities. Their work may influence public policy, healthcare awareness, and social attitudes toward vulnerable groups.
To solve this question, one should identify the field for which Baba Amte became nationally recognized. The options include artistic and political professions, but his reputation is mainly associated with humanitarian service and social upliftment rather than entertainment or electoral politics.
This can be compared to a doctor devoting an entire career to helping neglected patients while also changing public attitudes through compassion and service. Such individuals become symbols of social responsibility and human dignity.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian social reformers, humanitarian movements, and important personalities associated with public welfare activities.
Option a – Social worker
Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers received “NISHAN-E-PAKISTAN,” the highest civilian award in Pakistan?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Atal Behari Vajpayee
Explanation: This question concerns international diplomacy and honors awarded by foreign governments. Civilian awards are often presented to leaders or individuals who contribute significantly toward peace, cooperation, diplomacy, or international relations between countries.
The Nishan-e-Pakistan is Pakistan’s highest civilian honor and may be awarded to foreign dignitaries for their efforts in improving bilateral relations or promoting peace initiatives. Such recognitions carry diplomatic significance and symbolize goodwill between nations.
To solve this question, one should identify the Indian Prime Minister associated with efforts toward peaceful engagement and improved relations with Pakistan during his political career. The options include leaders from different periods of Indian politics with varied diplomatic approaches.
This can be compared to countries honoring foreign scientists or cultural ambassadors whose work strengthens mutual understanding and cooperation beyond national boundaries.
The question tests knowledge of Indian political leaders, international awards, diplomatic relations, and important moments in South Asian political history.
Option c – Morarji Desai
Who is the vice chairman of NITI Aayog constituted in 2015?
(a) V.S. Saraswat
(b) Arvind Panagaria
(c) Sandhu Sri Khullar
(d) Bibek Debroy
Explanation: This question is related to Indian governance and economic policy institutions. NITI Aayog was established as a policy think tank to replace the earlier Planning Commission and assist in strategic development planning for the country.
The institution focuses on cooperative federalism, economic reforms, innovation, sustainable development, and policy recommendations for national growth. Its leadership includes experts, economists, administrators, and government officials who guide long-term developmental strategies.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the individual appointed as vice chairman during the formation period in 2015. The listed personalities are associated with Economics, policy advisory roles, science, or administration, making careful distinction important.
This can be compared to selecting an academic dean in a University who guides long-term educational planning and institutional direction through expertise and strategic thinking.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian administrative reforms, public policy institutions, economic governance, and important office bearers associated with national planning bodies.
Option b – Arvind Panagaria
Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given for outstanding contribution to
(a) Wildlife conservation
(b) Neat Technology and development
(c) Writing of Hindi books on Environment
(d) Afforestation and conservation of wasteland
Explanation: This question concerns environmental protection and national recognition for ecological contributions. Environmental awards are presented to encourage sustainable development, Pollution reduction, conservation practices, and environmentally responsible technological progress.
Industrial and technological growth often creates environmental challenges such as Pollution, deforestation, and resource depletion. Awards associated with environmental improvement recognize organizations or individuals adopting cleaner methods and sustainable practices beneficial for society and nature.
To solve this question, one should identify the field specifically associated with the Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award. The options include Wildlife conservation, environmental writing, afforestation, and Technology-related environmental improvement, requiring careful understanding of the award’s objective.
This can be compared to honoring companies that reduce waste and adopt cleaner production systems instead of relying on harmful industrial methods. Environmental awards promote innovation alongside ecological responsibility.
The question evaluates knowledge of environmental initiatives, Indian awards, sustainable development, and conservation-related recognition programs.
Option b – Neat Technology and development
Which Indian was honoured by the World Statesman Award 2010?
(a) Lal Krishna Advani
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(d) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
Explanation: This question relates to international recognition given to political leaders for leadership, governance, diplomacy, or contributions toward global peace and development. Awards of this nature are often presented by international organizations and institutions.
The World Statesman Award recognizes individuals who demonstrate qualities such as statesmanship, democratic values, global cooperation, and visionary leadership. Political leaders receiving such honors are generally respected for their influence on national and international affairs.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the Indian leader associated with this recognition during 2010. The options include senior political personalities with different roles in government, administration, and public life.
This can be compared to universities granting honorary awards to global leaders whose work has significantly influenced society and international relations. Such honors recognize both political achievements and diplomatic reputation.
The question evaluates awareness of international awards, Indian political leaders, and significant recognitions associated with global public leadership.
Option c – Dr. Manmohan Singh
2008 is declared an international year of
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Potato
(d) Sugar cane
Explanation: This question is related to international observances declared by global organizations such as the United Nations. Specific years are often dedicated to important themes in order to raise awareness, encourage research, and promote global cooperation on key issues.
International years may focus on Agriculture, Environment, Health, Culture, or scientific development depending on worldwide priorities. Such declarations aim to highlight the significance of a particular crop, issue, or sector for Food security, Economy, or sustainable development.
To solve this question, one should identify which topic was officially associated with the year 2008. The listed options include major agricultural crops that play vital roles in Food production and economic activity across many countries.
This can be compared to dedicating an entire School year to promoting environmental awareness or scientific learning so that students and institutions focus attention on a common theme.
The question evaluates knowledge of international Current Affairs, United Nations initiatives, agricultural importance, and global awareness campaigns.
Option a – Rice
Wasim Akram of Pakistan is associated with
(a) Cricket
(b) Martial Law
(c) Politics
(d) Nuclear Tests
Explanation: This question concerns international sports personalities and general awareness about famous individuals from neighboring countries. Wasim Akram became globally recognized due to exceptional achievements and influence in his professional field.
Certain personalities become so famous that their names are immediately linked with a specific profession or achievement. In South Asia especially, sporting icons often gain legendary status because of outstanding international performances and long careers.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the field most strongly associated with Wasim Akram. Although some options involve politics or national events, his international reputation primarily comes from excellence in a globally followed sport.
This can be compared to identifying a famous scientist with Physics or a celebrated singer with music simply because their contributions in that field became widely recognized around the world.
The question evaluates awareness of international sports personalities, South Asian public figures, and General Knowledge related to famous achievers.
Option a – Cricket
Mr. P. J. Thomas was appointed as the central vigilance commissioner on September 7, 2010. He is an IAS officer of the following state’s cadre
(a) Kerala
(b) Assam
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Explanation: This question relates to Indian administration and civil services. Officers of the Indian Administrative Service are allotted different state cadres through which they serve in administration, governance, and public policy implementation.
The Central Vigilance Commissioner holds an important position connected with maintaining integrity, transparency, and vigilance in public administration. Appointments to such offices often draw national attention because of their significance in governance and anti-corruption mechanisms.
To solve this question, one should identify the state cadre associated with P. J. Thomas during his IAS career. The listed states represent different administrative cadres under the Indian civil services system.
This can be compared to identifying the regional branch of an organization where a senior officer spent most of their professional career before moving to a national leadership role.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian bureaucracy, civil service structure, administrative appointments, and important public officials associated with governance institutions.
Option a – Kerala
In which country was Ms. Julia Gillard made the first woman Prime Minister in the year 2010?
(a) Canada
(b) Poland
(c) Australia
(d) Germany
Explanation: This question concerns international politics and women’s leadership in government. Many countries have gradually witnessed increased participation of women in top political positions, marking important milestones in democratic representation and gender equality.
Prime Ministers are heads of government in parliamentary systems and play central roles in administration, policy-making, and international diplomacy. When a country elects or appoints its first woman Prime Minister, the event often becomes historically significant and widely discussed globally.
To solve this question, one should identify the country associated with Julia Gillard’s political career. The options include nations from different continents, each having distinct political systems and leadership histories. Recognizing the political background and nationality of the leader helps eliminate incorrect choices.
This can be compared to a University appointing its first woman vice-chancellor after decades of male leadership, symbolizing changing opportunities and broader representation in leadership positions.
The question evaluates awareness of international Current Affairs, political leadership, women in governance, and important global political milestones.
Option c – Australia
Late Smt. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit was
(a) First woman chief minister of a state
(b) First Indian woman to become president of U.N. General Assembly
(c) First woman Governor of a state
(d) None of these
Explanation: This question relates to Indian political history and pioneering women leaders. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit was an influential diplomat and public figure who represented India internationally during important phases of modern history.
After independence, India saw several women break traditional barriers and occupy prominent administrative and diplomatic positions. Their achievements became symbols of women’s empowerment and India’s growing role in global affairs.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the historic position or achievement most strongly associated with Vijaya Laxmi Pandit. The options mention several “first woman” distinctions in Indian public life, requiring careful distinction between political, administrative, and diplomatic roles.
This can be compared to recognizing the first person from a country to lead a major international institution, thereby increasing national prestige and inspiring future generations.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian diplomatic history, women leaders, international institutions, and pioneering achievements in public service.
Option b – First Indian woman to become president of U.N. General Assembly
David Cameron was back to power on 9th May 2015 in recently held elections in the UK. Which party swept Scotland in the election with a majority of its MPs?
(a) The Conservative Party
(b) The Labour Party
(c) Scottish National Party
(d) The Liberal Democrats
Explanation: This question concerns international politics and electoral developments in the United Kingdom. Parliamentary elections in the UK involve multiple political parties competing across England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland.
Scotland has its own political identity and regional parties that often focus on local governance, autonomy, and national interests. Election outcomes in Scotland can significantly influence the composition and political balance of the UK Parliament.
To solve this question, one should identify the political party that performed exceptionally strongly in Scotland during the 2015 UK general elections. The listed options include major national parties and a regional party associated specifically with Scottish political interests.
This can be compared to regional parties dominating elections in certain Indian states because they focus more directly on local aspirations and cultural identity than national parties.
The question evaluates awareness of international Current Affairs, UK politics, regional political movements, and parliamentary election outcomes.
Option c – Scottish National Party
The International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) is located in
(a) London
(b) Rome
(c) Vienna
(d) Geneva
Explanation: This question is related to international organizations and global industrial standards. The International Organisation for Standardisation develops worldwide standards that help ensure quality, safety, efficiency, and compatibility across products and services.
Standardization is essential in industries such as manufacturing, Technology, healthcare, Communication, and transportation. International standards allow countries and companies to maintain uniform procedures and ensure that products function reliably across different markets.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the city where ISO has its headquarters. The options include well-known international cities that host important global organizations and diplomatic institutions.
This can be compared to a central examination board that creates common rules and evaluation systems for schools across different regions. Similarly, ISO establishes internationally accepted standards for industries worldwide.
The question evaluates awareness of international institutions, industrial standardization systems, and global administrative organizations connected with quality and safety regulations.
Option d – Geneva
In October 2014, India was re-elected for three years as a member of
(a) The U.N. Security Council
(b) The World Bank
(c) The U.N. General Assembly
(d) The U.N. Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
Explanation: This question concerns India’s participation in international organizations and global governance bodies. Countries are often elected to different United Nations councils and institutions for fixed terms to contribute toward international decision-making.
Membership in international bodies reflects diplomatic standing, cooperation, and participation in addressing global economic, social, developmental, or security issues. Such elections are usually conducted through voting by member nations in international assemblies.
To solve this question, one should identify the organization to which India was re-elected in 2014 for a three-year term. The options include major international institutions associated with finance, diplomacy, security, and development.
This can be compared to a country being selected again for an important committee because of its active participation and influence in global discussions and policymaking.
The question evaluates knowledge of international relations, United Nations bodies, India’s diplomatic role, and important global institutions.
Option d – The U.N. Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
Which legendary actor was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 2012?
(a) Anupam Kher
(b) Shashi Kapoor
(c) Pran Krishan Sikand
(d) Soumitra Chatterjee
Explanation: This question is related to Indian cinema and prestigious film honors. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award is considered the highest award in Indian cinema and is presented for lifetime contribution to the film industry.
Actors receiving this award are usually individuals whose careers span decades and who have significantly influenced acting styles, cinema Culture, and film history in India. Such personalities often become iconic figures admired across generations.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the actor who received this recognition in 2012. The listed actors belong to different generations and cinematic backgrounds, requiring familiarity with award timelines and film history.
This can be compared to honoring a veteran teacher or scientist for lifelong dedication and influence in their profession. Lifetime achievement awards celebrate sustained excellence rather than a single performance.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian cinema, film awards, notable actors, and important achievements in the entertainment industry.
Option c – Pran Krishan Sikand
In the first expansion of SAARC, which one of the following countries joined as the eighth member of SAARC?
(a) Iran
(b) Thailand
(c) Myanmar
(d) Afghanistan
Explanation: This question concerns regional international organizations and South Asian cooperation. SAARC was established to promote economic, cultural, and social collaboration among countries of South Asia.
Regional organizations allow neighboring nations to discuss shared concerns such as trade, development, education, security, and cultural exchange. As these organizations grow, new members may be admitted to strengthen regional cooperation and broaden participation.
To solve this question, one should identify the country that became the eighth member during the first expansion of SAARC membership. The options include nations connected geographically or politically with South Asia and nearby regions.
This can be compared to a club expanding membership by admitting a new participant who shares common regional interests and objectives with existing members.
The question evaluates knowledge of international organizations, South Asian diplomacy, regional cooperation, and the membership history of SAARC.
Option d – Afghanistan
Who was the first governor of Bengal?
(a) Lord Clive
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Bentinck
(d) Lord Wellesley
Explanation: This question relates to Indian colonial history and British administration in India. During British rule, Bengal became one of the earliest and most important administrative regions under the East India Company.
Governors played major roles in revenue administration, military expansion, and political control. Some governors later introduced reforms, while others became associated with territorial expansion and colonial governance policies.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the historical figure recognized as the first governor connected with Bengal administration under British authority. The options include prominent colonial administrators from different periods of British Indian history.
This can be compared to identifying the first principal of a major institution whose early administrative decisions shaped its future development and structure.
The question evaluates awareness of colonial administration, British Indian history, and important personalities associated with Bengal governance.
Option a – Lord Clive
First Indian to pass ICS
(a) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(b) S.C. Bose
(c) C.R. Das
(d) Devendra Nath Tagore
Explanation: This question concerns Indian history and the civil services system during British rule. The Indian Civil Service, commonly known as ICS, was one of the most prestigious and powerful administrative services under the British administration.
Passing the ICS examination was extremely difficult because it involved rigorous academic standards and was initially conducted in England. For Indians during colonial times, succeeding in this examination represented intellectual achievement as well as a challenge to British administrative dominance.
To solve this question, one should identify the Indian personality historically recognized as the first to qualify for the ICS examination. The options include notable leaders, lawyers, and intellectuals associated with India’s political and social movements.
This achievement can be compared to becoming the first student from a region to qualify for an internationally competitive examination previously dominated by others, thereby inspiring future generations.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian colonial history, administrative services, and pioneering Indian personalities in governance and education.
Option a – Surendra Nath Banerjee
First Indian Prime Minister to resign from office
(a) A.B. Vajpayee
(b) I.K. Gujral
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) H.D. Devegowda
Explanation: This question relates to Indian political history and parliamentary governance. In democratic systems, Prime Ministers may resign for reasons such as loss of majority support, political disagreement, coalition instability, or electoral developments.
India’s parliamentary system has witnessed governments with both strong majorities and fragile coalitions. Resignations by Prime Ministers often become major political events because they influence governance, elections, and national political stability.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the Prime Minister who became the first in India to step down from office before completing a full term. The listed leaders served during different political periods and coalition arrangements.
This can be compared to the captain of a team stepping down after losing the confidence or support required to continue leading effectively. Political leadership depends heavily on parliamentary majority and alliance management.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian political chronology, parliamentary democracy, coalition politics, and the careers of Indian Prime Ministers.
Option c – Morarji Desai
First Indian scientist to get the Nobel Prize
(a) C.V. Raman
(b) J.C. Bose
(c) H.J. Bhabha
(d) H.G. Khurana
Explanation: This question relates to Indian scientific achievements and international recognition. The Nobel Prize is one of the world’s most prestigious honors, awarded for exceptional contributions in fields such as Physics, chemistry, medicine, literature, and peace.
Indian scientists have contributed significantly to global scientific advancement despite limited resources during earlier periods. Receiving a Nobel Prize represents not only personal excellence but also international recognition of a scientist’s groundbreaking research and discoveries.
To solve this question, one should identify the Indian scientist who first received a Nobel Prize. The listed scientists are all famous for contributions in areas such as Physics, plant science, nuclear research, and biochemistry, making historical order important for selecting the correct option.
This achievement can be compared to a student becoming the first from a School to win an international academic championship, thereby inspiring future generations and bringing global recognition to the institution.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian scientific history, Nobel laureates, and important discoveries associated with pioneering Indian researchers.
Option a – C.V. Raman
Which of the following is India’s first University?
(a) Nalanda
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Aligarh
Explanation: This question concerns the history of education in India and ancient centers of learning. India has a long tradition of higher education, with institutions that attracted scholars from different regions for studies in philosophy, medicine, mathematics, religion, and literature.
Ancient universities were not only educational centers but also hubs of intellectual exchange and cultural development. They often included large libraries, residential facilities, and teachers specializing in multiple disciplines. Some gained worldwide fame for scholarly excellence and attracted students from abroad.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the institution historically recognized as India’s earliest University-level center of education. The options include both ancient and modern universities established in different historical periods.
This can be compared to identifying the oldest library or educational institution in a country that laid the foundation for later academic systems and traditions.
The question evaluates understanding of Indian educational history, ancient universities, and the development of organized higher learning in India.
Option a – Nalanda
First country to print books
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Germany
(d) France
Explanation: This question is related to world history and the development of printing technology. Printing books transformed human civilization by making knowledge easier to preserve, reproduce, and distribute across large populations.
Before printing technology, books were copied manually, which was time-consuming and expensive. Early printing methods gradually evolved into more efficient systems that enabled widespread education, Communication, and cultural development. The invention of printing played a major role in scientific progress and literacy.
To solve this question, one should identify the country historically associated with the earliest known use of printing techniques for producing books. Different civilizations contributed to the spread of printing technology, but one nation pioneered the practice much earlier than others.
This can be compared to the transition from handwritten letters to modern digital Communication, where technological advancement dramatically increased speed and accessibility.
The question evaluates awareness of technological history, early inventions, and the historical development of printing and book production.
Option b – China
Where was the 14th Asia Security Summit (Shangri-La Dialogue) held in May 2015?
(a) Bangkok
(b) Jakarta
(c) Singapore
(d) Beijing
Explanation: This question concerns international diplomacy and security discussions in the Asia-Pacific region. The Shangri-La Dialogue is an important security summit where political leaders, defense ministers, and strategic experts discuss regional and global security challenges.
Such conferences address issues related to defense cooperation, maritime security, terrorism, international relations, and geopolitical stability. The summit is recognized globally as a significant platform for strategic dialogue among Asian and international powers.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the city where the 14th summit took place in 2015. The listed cities are major Asian capitals known for diplomacy, trade, or international meetings, making geographical awareness important.
This can be compared to a global academic conference where experts from different countries gather regularly at a specific location to discuss common concerns and future strategies.
The question evaluates knowledge of international Current Affairs, diplomatic forums, Asian security cooperation, and important conference locations.
Option c – Singapore
The SAARC secretariat is located at
(a) Colombo
(b) Karachi
(c) New Delhi
(d) Kathmandu
Explanation: This question relates to international organizations and regional cooperation in South Asia. SAARC was established to encourage collaboration among neighboring countries in areas such as trade, Culture, education, Agriculture, and development.
The secretariat of an international organization functions as its administrative headquarters. It coordinates meetings, Communication, documentation, and implementation of programs among member countries. Such headquarters are usually located in important diplomatic or political centers.
To solve this question, one should identify the city where the SAARC secretariat is officially situated. The listed cities are major South Asian capitals associated with politics and regional diplomacy.
This can be compared to the main office of a large organization where all administrative coordination and official activities are managed for members spread across different regions.
The question evaluates awareness of regional organizations, South Asian diplomacy, and the locations of important international administrative institutions.
Option d – Kathmandu
In the group of countries known as BRICS, S stands for
(a) Spain
(b) South Korea
(c) Singapore
(d) South Africa
Explanation: This question concerns international economic groupings and emerging global economies. BRICS is a coalition of major developing nations that cooperate on economic, political, and developmental issues at the international level.
The member countries are considered influential emerging economies with growing importance in global trade, investment, Population, and international policymaking. The acronym was formed using the initial letters of participating countries, and later expanded with additional membership.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify which country is represented by the letter “S” in the acronym. The listed options include nations from different continents with varying economic and political influence.
This can be compared to forming a team name using the initials of all participating members, where each letter corresponds to a specific individual or group.
The question evaluates awareness of international economic organizations, global cooperation among developing nations, and Current Affairs related to world politics and trade.
Option d – South Africa
Amnesty International is an organisation associated with
(a) Protection of human rights
(b) Abolition of untouchability
(c) Protection of women’s rights
(d) None of these
Explanation: This question relates to international non-governmental organizations and humanitarian work. Amnesty International is globally recognized for campaigns related to justice, dignity, and the protection of individuals facing abuse or unfair treatment.
Human rights organizations monitor issues such as unlawful imprisonment, discrimination, violence, freedom of expression, and civil liberties. They conduct investigations, publish reports, and encourage governments to follow internationally accepted standards of justice and human rights.
To solve this question, one should identify the primary field in which Amnesty International operates. The options mention several social causes, but only one reflects the organization’s core global mission and long-standing activities.
This can be compared to a watchdog institution that raises awareness and supports individuals whose basic rights are threatened or ignored by authorities or systems.
The question evaluates understanding of international humanitarian organizations, global social movements, and awareness of institutions working for justice and civil liberties.
Option a – Protection of human rights
Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is located at
(a) Delhi
(b) Jodhpur
(c) Rae Bareilly
(d) Secunderabad
Explanation: This question concerns aviation training and educational institutions in India. The Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is an important institution established for professional pilot training and aviation education.
Aviation academies train students in aircraft operation, navigation, safety procedures, meteorology, and flight management. Such institutions require specialized infrastructure including runways, simulators, aircraft maintenance facilities, and experienced instructors.
To solve this question, one should identify the city associated with this aviation academy. The listed options include cities known for administrative, military, or educational significance, making familiarity with aviation institutions important.
This can be compared to locating a national sports academy where athletes receive advanced professional training in a specialized Environment designed for skill development.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian aviation institutions, professional training centers, and educational infrastructure connected with civil aviation.
Option c – Rae Bareilly
Brain drain
(a) is a Disease
(b) refers to the emigration of skilled persons
(c) is fruitless expenditure on scientific and technical research
(d) refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
Explanation: This question relates to Economics, education, and migration studies. “Brain drain” refers to the movement of highly educated or skilled individuals from one country or region to another in search of better opportunities.
Countries invest heavily in education, technical training, and professional development. When talented individuals migrate permanently for higher salaries, research opportunities, or improved living conditions, their home country may lose valuable human resources and expertise.
To solve this question, one should identify the option that best describes this migration of skilled people. The other choices mention unrelated concepts such as diseases or educational dropout issues, which do not reflect the actual meaning of the term.
This can be compared to a sports academy losing its best athletes to foreign teams after years of training them. While individuals may benefit personally, the original institution loses talent and experience.
The question evaluates understanding of economic terminology, migration patterns, workforce development, and social issues related to skilled human resources.
Option b – refers to the emigration of skilled persons
Teen Bigha Corridor links
(a) India and China
(b) Bangladesh and India
(c) India and Pakistan
(d) Bangladesh and Pakistan
Explanation: This question concerns Geography and international boundaries in South Asia. Corridors are narrow strips of land used to connect territories, facilitate transportation, or maintain access between separated regions.
The Teen Bigha Corridor has historical and diplomatic importance because it relates to border arrangements and connectivity between neighboring countries. Such corridors are often established through bilateral agreements to simplify movement and reduce territorial complications.
To solve this question, one should identify the two countries connected through this corridor. The listed options include neighboring nations in Asia with different border relationships and historical agreements.
This can be compared to creating a passageway between two separated buildings so that movement becomes easier without obstruction. International corridors similarly help manage access and cooperation between territories.
The question evaluates knowledge of South Asian Geography, international border arrangements, diplomatic agreements, and regional connectivity issues.
Option b – Bangladesh and India
Red data book gives information about species which are
(a) rare
(b) extinct
(c) dangerous
(d) endangered
Explanation: This question relates to environmental science and Wildlife conservation. The Red Data Book is an important reference document used to record and monitor species that face serious threats to their survival in nature.
Conservation organizations study plants and animals to determine their Population status, habitat condition, and risk of extinction. Species facing rapid decline due to habitat destruction, hunting, Pollution, or Climate change are categorized carefully so that protection measures can be planned effectively.
To solve this question, one should identify the category of species primarily listed in the Red Data Book. The options include terms connected with rarity, extinction, danger, and conservation status, but only one directly represents species at significant risk of disappearing from the natural Environment.
This can be compared to maintaining a medical emergency list for patients requiring urgent care and monitoring. Similarly, conservation scientists maintain records of vulnerable species needing immediate protection.
The question evaluates understanding of Biodiversity conservation, ecological terminology, Wildlife protection systems, and international environmental awareness.
Option d – endangered
Who conquered Mount Everest ten times?
(a) Rita Ang
(b) Yasuo Kato
(c) Tensing Norgay
(d) Nawong Gombu
Explanation: This question concerns mountaineering and remarkable achievements in adventure sports. Mount Everest, the world’s highest mountain peak, presents extreme challenges due to freezing temperatures, low oxygen levels, and dangerous terrain.
Successfully climbing Everest requires physical endurance, technical skill, mental determination, and careful preparation. Mountaineers who repeatedly scale the peak become internationally recognized because even a single successful ascent is considered a major accomplishment.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the climber known for reaching the summit ten times. The listed personalities include mountaineers associated with Everest expeditions and Himalayan climbing history.
This achievement can be compared to repeatedly winning one of the world’s most difficult endurance competitions under harsh environmental conditions. Consistent success at such altitude demonstrates extraordinary discipline and experience.
The question evaluates awareness of adventure sports, mountaineering history, famous climbers, and important records associated with Mount Everest expeditions.
Option a – Rita Ang
The pair which is not a twin city
(a) Calcutta – Howrah
(b) Hyderabad – Secunderabad
(c) Delhi – New Delhi
(d) Durgapur – Asansol
Explanation: This question relates to urban Geography and city development. Twin cities are pairs of neighboring cities that grow closely together geographically, economically, or administratively while often maintaining separate identities.
Twin cities usually share transportation systems, markets, cultural interactions, and infrastructure because of their close proximity. Over time, urban expansion may make them appear almost like a single metropolitan region despite separate administrative boundaries.
To solve this question, one should identify the pair of cities that is not commonly recognized as a twin-city combination. Some listed pairs are historically and geographically linked, while one pair lacks that traditional association.
This can be compared to two schools sharing a campus and facilities while functioning independently. Twin cities similarly remain separate entities while being strongly interconnected.
The question evaluates knowledge of Indian urban Geography, city relationships, metropolitan development, and commonly known twin-city examples.
Option c – Delhi – New Delhi
The train service “Thar Express” between India and Pakistan originates in India from
(a) Barmer
(b) Jaisalmer
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Bikaner
Explanation: This question concerns transportation links and diplomatic connectivity between India and Pakistan. International train services often play important roles in maintaining people-to-people contact, trade, and cultural connections between neighboring countries.
The Thar Express was introduced to improve connectivity across regions historically linked before political partition. Such train services carry emotional, social, and diplomatic significance because they reconnect families and communities separated by borders.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the Indian city from which this Railway service begins its journey. The listed options are important cities of Rajasthan, each having distinct geographical and Transport importance near western India.
This can be compared to reopening an old bridge between two regions to restore Communication and movement after years of separation. Transportation links often strengthen diplomatic goodwill and social interaction.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian railways, international Transport services, India–Pakistan relations, and regional Geography.
Option c – Jodhpur
Where is the Headquarter of Zoological Survey of India located?
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Kolkata
Explanation: This question is related to scientific institutions and Biodiversity research in India. The Zoological Survey of India is an important organization involved in studying Animal species, Wildlife diversity, and ecological resources across the country.
Scientific institutions like this conduct research on classification, habitat distribution, endangered species, and conservation planning. Their studies help governments and environmental agencies develop policies for Wildlife protection and Biodiversity management.
To solve this question, one should identify the city where the headquarters of the organization is located. The listed cities are major Indian metropolitan centers known for administrative, scientific, or cultural importance.
This can be compared to the central office of a national research organization where data from different regional branches is collected, analyzed, and coordinated for scientific work.
The question evaluates understanding of Indian research institutions, zoological studies, environmental science, and national Biodiversity organizations.
Option d – Kolkata
The world’s only floating National Park is situated in
(a) Dispur
(b) Bilaspur
(c) Manipur
(d) Kuala Lumpur
Explanation: This question concerns Geography, Ecology, and unique environmental features. A floating national park is a rare ecosystem where vegetation and land masses float over water bodies, creating a distinctive natural habitat.
Such ecosystems support rich Biodiversity and provide shelter for birds, aquatic species, and rare animals. Floating vegetation forms naturally over time through accumulation of Organic Matter and plant growth. These habitats are environmentally sensitive and require careful conservation.
To answer the question correctly, one should identify the region famous for hosting this unique floating national park. The options include places from India and Southeast Asia associated with different geographical features.
This can be compared to a garden floating over water rather than existing on Solid ground. The unusual structure makes the ecosystem scientifically important and visually remarkable.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian Geography, ecological diversity, protected areas, and unique environmental landmarks.
Option c – Manipur
Who among the following advocated the “Labour Theory” of property?
(a) J.S. Mill
(b) J.J. Rousseau
(c) John Locke
(d) Thomas Hobbes
Explanation: This question relates to political philosophy and theories of property rights. The labour theory of property argues that individuals gain ownership rights over resources when they apply their labor and effort to them.
Political thinkers developed different theories explaining the origin of property, state authority, and social organization. Some believed property arises from legal systems, while others argued it is linked directly with individual work and productivity.
To solve this question, one should identify the philosopher most closely associated with the idea that labor creates legitimate ownership. The listed thinkers contributed different ideas about democracy, social contracts, liberty, and governance.
This can be compared to a person cultivating unused land through hard work and then claiming rights over the resulting produce because of personal effort and investment.
The question evaluates understanding of political philosophy, theories of property, and the contributions of major political thinkers.
Option c – John Locke
The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production “The Ghost and the Darkness” is
(a) Amitabh Bachchan
(b) Anil Kapoor
(c) Om Puri
(d) Naseeruddin Shah
Explanation: This question concerns cinema and international film collaborations. Indian actors occasionally participate in Hollywood productions, helping introduce Indian talent to global audiences and strengthening cross-cultural cinematic exchange.
“The Ghost and the Darkness” is an internationally known film based on historical events and adventure themes. Actors selected for such productions are usually recognized for strong acting skills and the ability to perform effectively in international cinema environments.
To answer this question correctly, one should identify the Indian actor associated with a significant role in the film. The listed actors are all respected performers in Indian cinema, known for different acting styles and film industries.
This can be compared to a national athlete representing their country in an international sports league, thereby gaining global recognition beyond domestic audiences.
The question evaluates awareness of Indian actors, international cinema participation, and important Hollywood productions featuring Indian talent.
Option c – Om Puri
TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with
(a) WTO
(b) IMF
(c) IDA
(d) IBRD
Explanation: This question relates to international trade and global economic agreements. TRIPS and TRIMS are important frameworks connected with international commerce, investment, and intellectual property regulations among countries.
Global trade organizations establish rules to ensure fair competition, protect inventions, regulate investments, and manage trade-related disputes. Such agreements influence industries, patents, multinational companies, and economic cooperation between nations.
To solve this question, one should identify the international organization with which these terms are associated. The options include major financial and economic institutions involved in global development and monetary systems.
This can be compared to rulebooks created by a sports authority to ensure that all participating teams follow common standards and procedures during competitions.
The question evaluates knowledge of international Economics, trade agreements, global institutions, and Current Affairs related to world commerce.
Option a – WTO
Which of the following is the odd one?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Bill Clinton
(c) Jimmy Carter
(d) George W. Bush
Explanation: This question is based on classification and identification of differences among important political personalities. Such questions test analytical ability by requiring recognition of a feature shared by most options but not by one individual.
The personalities listed are internationally known political leaders associated with major democratic countries. Some among them share common positions, historical roles, or political affiliations, while one differs significantly in that regard.
To solve this question, one should carefully compare the leaders based on nationality, political office, or historical context rather than focusing only on popularity. Identifying the common link among most names helps isolate the option that does not belong to the same category.
This can be compared to finding the different object in a group where three items share one defining characteristic while the fourth belongs to another category entirely.
The question evaluates reasoning ability, political awareness, and knowledge of important international leaders and their political backgrounds.
Option a – Tony Blair
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