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WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz for Students
A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is convened for
a) Election of the President of India
b) Election of the Vice-President of India
c) To pass a Bill amending the Constitution
d) To resolve legislative deadlocks between the two Houses
Option d – To resolve legislative deadlocks between the two Houses
Consider the following statements regarding joint sittings: 1. Article 108 of the Constitution provides for joint sittings of Parliament. 2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha occurred in 1961. 3. The second joint sitting was held to pass the banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
A legislative deadlock between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha requires a joint sitting in the case of
a) Ordinary legislation
b) Money Bill
c) Constitution Amendment Bill
d) Both ordinary legislation and Constitution Amendment Bill
Option a – Ordinary legislation
Regarding private member’s bills in Parliament: 1. A private member’s bill is introduced by an MP who is not a minister. 2. A private member’s bill has been passed in Parliament for the first time in recent years. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option d – Neither 1 nor 2
Concerning pending bills: 1. A bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on prorogation. 2. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse on Lok Sabha’s dissolution. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option b – Only 2
About Rajya Sabha officers and voting rights: 1. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman are not ordinary members of the House. 2. Nominated members of both Houses cannot vote in Presidential elections but can vote for the Vice-President. Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option b – Only 2
With reference to the Union Government: 1. The Department of Revenue prepares the Union Budget. 2. No funds can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without Parliament’s authorization. 3. Disbursements from the Public Account also require Parliament’s approval. Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Option c – Only 2
Methods of parliamentary oversight on public finance include: 1. Placing the Annual finance Statement before Parliament. 2. Withdrawal from Consolidated Fund only after Appropriation Bill is passed. 3. Supplementary grants and vote-on-account. 4. Periodic review of government programmes against macroeconomic forecasts. 5. Introduction of the finance Bill in Parliament. Which of the above are correct?
a) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
b) Only 1, 2 and 4
c) Only 3, 4 and 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Option a – Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
Difference between Vote-on-Account and Interim Budget: 1. Vote-on-Account is used by a regular government; Interim Budget is used by a caretaker government. 2. Vote-on-Account covers only expenditure; Interim Budget includes both expenditure and revenue. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option b – Only 2
Normal stages in financial legislation include: 1. Budget presentation 2. Budget discussion 3. Passing of Appropriation Bill 4. Vote on Account 5. Passing of finance Bill. Which combination is correct?
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 1, 3 and 4
c) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
Option d – Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
Prior approval of the President is required for Bills related to: 1. Formation of new states 2. Taxation affecting states 3. Alteration of state boundaries 4. Money Bill. Which of the above require prior sanction?
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 2, 3 and 4
c) Only 1, 2 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Option d – 1, 2, 3 and 4
Examine the following statements: 1. Right to Property is no longer a Fundamental Right. 2. Rajya Sabha can stop a Financial Bill. 3. Words “Secular” and “Democratic” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment. 4. Parliamentary disputes can be resolved by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only 1 and 2
b) Only 1 and 3
c) Only 1 and 4
d) Only 2 and 3
Option a – Only 1 and 2
Starred Questions in Parliament are characterized by: 1. Answers are given orally. 2. Answers are given in writing. 3. Supplementary Questions can be asked. 4. Supplementary Questions cannot be asked. 5. Answers can be discussed. 6. Speaker controls the answers. Select the correct combination:
a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2 and 4
c) Only 5 and 6
d) Only 3 and 5
Option a – Only 1 and 3
Parliament exercises control over Council of Ministers through: 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question Hour 3. Supplementary Questions. Which of the above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
In which year was the Tribes Act, later known as the Criminal Tribes Act, first enacted?
a) 1952
b) 1924
c) 1871
d) 1911
Option c – 1871
When did the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, officially come into effect?
a) 1st July, 1989
b) 30th January, 1990
c) 30th July, 1989
d) 1st January, 1990
Option b – 30th January, 1990
Which Act serves as the legal framework for addressing atrocities against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
a) Act 1990
b) Act 1989
c) Act 1992
d) Act 1991
Option b – Act 1989
Who is empowered to frame rules for the implementation of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a) State Government
b) Central Government
c) Both State and Central Governments
d) Supreme Court
Option b – Central Government
What is the minimum punishment for offences committed by public servants under Section 3 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) One year
d) None of the above
Option c – One year
The State Government can designate a Court of Session as a Special Court for SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act offences with the approval of
a) Governor
b) Chief Justice of the High Court
c) District Session Judge
d) Ministry of Law
Option b – Chief Justice of the High Court
The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is based on which legal principle for the protection and advancement of SCs and STs?
a) Doctrine of Severability
b) Doctrine of Preferred Position
c) Doctrine of Protective Discrimination
d) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
Option c – Doctrine of Protective Discrimination
Who is authorized to impose and collect a collective fine under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a) District Magistrate
b) State Government
c) Special Court
d) High Court
Option b – State Government
In prosecutions under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court may presume
a) Abetment
b) Common intention
c) Common object
d) All of the above
Option d – All of the above
Which Section of the SC/ST Act, 1989 incorporates certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code?
a) Section 12
b) Section 10
c) Section 6
d) Section 8
Option c – Section 6
Under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which legal relief is prohibited?
a) Anticipatory bail
b) Post-arrest bail
c) Probation
d) All of the above
Option a – Anticipatory bail
Under which Section of the SC/ST Act, 1989 is anticipatory bail explicitly barred?
a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 18
d) Section 19
Option c – Section 18
An offence under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 must be investigated by a police officer of at least which rank?
a) Sub-Inspector
b) Inspector
c) Deputy Superintendent
d) Superintendent
Option c – Deputy Superintendent
Which of the following powers is not granted to a Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
a) Forfeiture of convict’s property
b) Authorize non-police investigation
c) Remove a suspected offender from the area
d) Take measurements and photographs of a suspect
Option b – Authorize non-police investigation
Which of the following actions cannot be performed by a Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
a) Remove a person
b) Forfeit property
c) Take body measurements
d) Impose a collective fine
Option d – Impose a collective fine
In a prosecution under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused cannot claim as a defense
a) Act was in self-defense
b) They belong to the same caste as the victim
c) Harm caused was minor and not actionable
d) Both (A) and (C)
Option d – Both (A) and (C)
A Court of Session designated as a Special Court under the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is meant to ensure
a) Speedy trial
b) Time-bound trial
c) Special protection to victims
d) All of the above
Option a – Speedy trial
Under which Section of the SC/ST Rules, 1995, is the Constitution of the District Level Vigilance and Monitoring Committee provided?
a) Section 18
b) Section 19
c) Section 17
d) Section 16
Option c – Section 17
The Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996, has multiple objectives. Which of the following is not among them?
a) Promoting self-governance
b) Recognizing traditional rights
c) Establishing autonomous regions
d) Protecting tribal communities from exploitation
Option c – Establishing autonomous regions
When did the Right to Information Act receive the President’s assent? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) 15th May, 2005
b) 5th June, 2005
c) 15th June, 2005
d) 12th October, 2005
Option c – 15th June, 2005
Which statement correctly describes the Right to Information? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) It is a political right
b) It is a constitutional right
c) It is a legal right
d) It is a Social right
Option c – It is a legal right
What is the total number of judges in the Supreme Court of India, including the Chief Justice? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) Seven
b) Nine
c) Thirty-three
d) Twenty-five
Option c – Thirty-three
What was the originally sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) 24
b) 20
c) 18
d) 34
Option d – 34
What is the present sanctioned strength of judges in the Supreme Court of India? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 34
Option d – 34
On which date was the Supreme Court of India formally inaugurated? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) 27 January, 1950
b) 28 January, 1950
c) 29 January, 1950
d) 30 January, 1950
Option b – 28 January, 1950
Which court delivered a landmark judgment in September 2003 emphasizing the status of women in India? ( WBPRB GK mcq Daily Quiz )
a) Supreme Court of India
b) Local Courts
c) Special Courts
d) High Court, Uttar Pradesh
Option a – Supreme Court of India
By what means was the Supreme Court of India established? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Through an Act of Parliament in 1950
b) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
c) Under the Indian Government Act, 1953
d) By the Constitution of India
Option d – By the Constitution of India
Which statement about the Supreme Court of India is incorrect? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) The Supreme Court was SET up in 1950
b) It is the highest appellate court in India
c) It cannot hear cases from Court-martial but can hear from any High Court or Tribunal
d) It can hear cases from Court-martial, High Courts, and Tribunals
Option c – It cannot hear cases from Court-martial but can hear from any High Court or Tribunal
Who has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) The President of India
b) Parliament
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Law Commission
Option b – Parliament
To whom does a Supreme Court judge submit a resignation? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Chief Justice
b) President
c) Prime Minister
d) Law Minister
Option b – President
How can a Supreme Court judge be removed from office? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) At the discretion of the Chief Justice
b) By the President directly
c) By the President on the recommendation of the Chief Justice
d) By the President on Parliament’s recommendation
Option d – By the President on Parliament’s recommendation
What procedure must precede the removal of a Supreme Court judge by the President? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Inquiry by the CBI
b) Inquiry by the Chief Justice of India
c) Report from the Bar Council of India
d) Impeachment by Parliament
Option d – Impeachment by Parliament
What is the retirement age of Supreme Court judges? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) 62 years
b) 63 years
c) 64 years
d) 65 years
Option d – 65 years
Who decides the salaries of Supreme Court judges? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Pay Commission appointed by the President
b) Law Commission
c) Parliament
d) Council of Ministers
Option c – Parliament
After retirement, where can Supreme Court judges practice law? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Only in the Supreme Court
b) Only in High Courts
c) In both Supreme Court and High Courts
d) In none of the courts
Option d – In none of the courts
Who appoints the Acting Chief Justice of India? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Prime Minister
c) President
d) Law Minister
Option c – President
How are Supreme Court judges appointed by the President? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Following Rajya Sabha recommendation
b) On Lok Sabha advice
c) On Prime Minister’s advice
d) In consultation with the Chief Justice
Option d – In consultation with the Chief Justice
When are Adhoc judges appointed in the Supreme Court? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) When judges are on long leave
b) When permanent appointments are unavailable
c) When there is an abnormal rise in pending cases
d) When quorum of judges is unavailable
Option d – When quorum of judges is unavailable
In which courts does the Constitution allow appointment of Adhoc judges? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Supreme Court
b) High Courts
c) District and Session Courts
d) All of the above
Option a – Supreme Court
In which year was the Collegium System for appointing judges adopted in India? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) 1993
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 2004
Option a – 1993
How many senior judges, along with the Chief Justice, make up the Supreme Court Collegium? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Option b – 4
What is the minimum number of judges required to hear a case interpreting the Constitution? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Ten
b) Nine
c) Seven
d) Five
Option d – Five
Which jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court to settle disputes between the Centre and States? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Advisory jurisdiction
b) Appellate jurisdiction
c) Original jurisdiction
d) Constitutional jurisdiction
Option c – Original jurisdiction
The second largest bench ever formed by the Supreme Court was for which case? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Golaknath Case
b) Minerva Mills Case
c) Bank Nationalisation Case
d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation Case
Option a – Golaknath Case
Which case established the Doctrine of Basic Structure? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Golaknath
b) A.K. Gopalan
c) Keshavananda Bharati
d) Menaka Gandhi
Option c – Keshavananda Bharati
Which case formally articulated the concept of the Basic Structure of the Constitution? ( WBPRB GK MCQ Daily Quiz )
a) Indira Sahni Case
b) Shankari Prasad Case
c) Rudal Shah Case
d) Keshavananda Bharati Case
Option d – Keshavananda Bharati Case
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