Explanation: This question asks about the classification or origin of ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone), focusing on where it is produced and how it functions in the endocrine system. ACTH plays a crucial role in regulating the activity of other glands.
ACTH is part of the endocrine system, where hormones are secreted by specialized glands and transported through the bloodstream to target organs. It is specifically associated with the control of adrenal gland activity, influencing the release of important hormones like cortisol. Understanding hormone origin is key to identifying its classification.
To approach this, recall that hormones are often named based on their source gland or function. ACTH is secreted by a specific part of the brain’s endocrine system and acts on another gland. By identifying its source, you can classify it correctly among hormone types such as hypothalamic, pituitary, or others.
For example, think of the endocrine system like a chain of command: one gland signals another to act. ACTH works as a messenger in this chain, linking higher control centers to peripheral glands.
In summary, identifying ACTH requires understanding its origin and regulatory role within the endocrine hierarchy, rather than just memorizing its name.
(B) considered as the functional unit of contraction.
(C) the elastic fiber called the ‘A’ band.
(D) the part where thick filaments overlap the thin filaments.
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the structural unit found between two adjacent Z lines in a muscle fiber, which is essential for understanding muscle contraction mechanisms. It tests knowledge of muscle Anatomy at the microscopic level.
Muscle fibers contain myofibrils, which are composed of repeating structural units responsible for contraction. These units are organized in a highly ordered pattern, with alternating Light and dark bands. The Z lines serve as boundaries that define these repeating segments.
To solve this, recall that muscle contraction occurs through the sliding of thin and thick filaments within these segments. The region between two Z lines includes all the necessary components for contraction, making it the fundamental functional unit of a muscle fiber. Recognizing this unit helps explain how muscles shorten during activity.
An easy way to visualize this is to think of a train made of identical compartments. Each compartment represents one functional unit, and the connectors between them are like Z lines. Each unit works together to produce overall movement.
In summary, the region between two Z lines represents a repeating structural and functional unit essential for muscle contraction and overall muscle function.
Option b – considered as the functional unit of contraction
…….. acts on the melanin-containing cells and regulates pigmentation of the skin.
(A) MSH
(B) FSH
(C) TSH
(D) LH
Explanation: This question is asking which hormone influences melanin-containing cells and thereby controls skin pigmentation. It focuses on hormonal regulation of skin color through specific target cells.
Melanin is the pigment responsible for skin, hair, and eye color. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Certain hormones can directly affect these cells by stimulating melanin production or altering its distribution, thereby changing pigmentation levels.
To approach this, recall that some hormones specifically act on pigment cells. These hormones bind to receptors on melanocytes and trigger biochemical pathways that increase melanin synthesis. This process can be influenced by environmental factors like sunlight as well as internal hormonal signals.
Think of melanocytes like factories producing pigment, and the hormone as a manager giving instructions to increase or decrease production. When the signal is strong, more pigment is produced, leading to darker coloration.
In summary, identifying the hormone requires understanding how endocrine signals regulate melanocyte activity and control pigmentation in the body.
(C) activities are under the voluntary control of the nervous system.
(D) are located in the inner walls of the alimentary canal and reproductive tract.
Explanation: This question is about identifying the characteristics and location of visceral muscles, which are a specific type of muscle tissue found in the human body.
Visceral muscles, also known as smooth muscles, are non-striated and function involuntarily. They are controlled by the autonomic nervous system and are found in internal organs. These muscles are responsible for movements such as peristalsis in the digestive tract and contractions in the reproductive system.
To solve this, recall that muscle types are classified based on structure and control: skeletal (voluntary), cardiac (heart), and smooth (visceral). Visceral muscles are not under conscious control and are located in the walls of hollow organs. Their slow, sustained contractions are essential for internal bodily functions.
An analogy would be automatic machinery in a factory that runs without direct supervision. You don’t consciously control it, but it keeps essential processes going.
In summary, visceral muscles are involuntary muscles located in internal organ walls, playing a key role in maintaining essential physiological processes.
Option d – are located in the inner walls of the alimentary canal and reproductive tract.
Out of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves, …….. pairs remain in the head region.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 11
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of cranial nerves and how many of them are confined to the head region without extending into other parts of the body.
Cranial nerves originate from the brain and are responsible for sensory and motor functions. While all 12 pairs arise from the brain, not all of them remain limited to the head. Some extend to regions like the neck, thorax, or abdomen, performing broader functions.
To approach this, recall that certain cranial nerves have localized roles such as vision, smell, and facial movement, while others, like the vagus nerve, extend far beyond the head. By distinguishing between these categories, you can determine how many remain confined to the head region.
Think of cranial nerves like Communication cables: some serve only a small area, while others stretch across long distances to connect different regions.
In summary, solving this requires identifying which cranial nerves are restricted to the head and which extend beyond it.
Explanation: This question focuses on the hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis, the process by which sperm cells are produced in the testes.
Spermatogenesis is controlled by a coordinated interaction between hormones secreted by the pituitary gland and the testes. These hormones regulate the development, maturation, and maintenance of sperm production through complex feedback mechanisms.
To solve this, recall that one hormone stimulates the Sertoli cells to support sperm development, while another influences testosterone production, which is essential for the process. The interaction between these hormones ensures proper functioning of the male reproductive system.
An analogy is a production line where one supervisor manages the workers directly while another ensures the supply of necessary materials. Both are required for smooth operation.
In summary, identifying the regulating hormones requires understanding their combined role in controlling sperm production through endocrine signaling.
Option c – FSH and androgens
Muscle is a specialized tissue of …….. origin.
(A) mesodermal
(B) ectodermal
(C) endodermal
(D) none of these
Explanation: This question asks about the embryonic origin of muscle tissue, which is important for understanding how different tissues develop in the body.
During embryonic development, three primary germ layers form: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs. Muscle tissue develops from one of these layers, which is associated with movement and structural support.
To answer this, recall that the mesoderm forms structures such as muscles, bones, and the circulatory system. This layer is responsible for most of the body’s structural and locomotor components.
Think of germ layers like construction teams: each team is assigned a specific SET of structures to build. The team responsible for movement-related structures produces muscle tissue.
In summary, identifying the origin of muscle tissue requires understanding embryonic germ layers and their developmental roles.
Explanation: This question is about identifying the organ that responds to thyrotropin, also known as thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), in the endocrine system.
Thyrotropin is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a key role in regulating metabolism by controlling another endocrine gland. It binds to receptors on its target organ and stimulates the release of hormones that influence metabolic rate.
To solve this, recall that TSH specifically acts on a gland responsible for producing hormones like thyroxine. This gland regulates metabolism, growth, and energy balance in the body.
An analogy would be a manager instructing a factory to increase production. The manager (TSH) sends signals, and the factory (target gland) produces the required output.
In summary, identifying the target organ involves understanding hormonal signaling pathways and the relationship between pituitary hormones and peripheral glands.
Option d – the thyroid gland
The pelvic girdle consists of
(A) two coxal bones
(B) bones of upper limbs
(C) one coxal bone
(D) clavicle and scapula
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of human skeletal Anatomy, specifically the structure and components of the pelvic girdle.
The pelvic girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton and serves as a support structure for the lower limbs. It connects the vertebral column to the legs and provides stability and protection for internal organs.
To approach this, recall that the pelvic girdle is formed by specific bones that are joined together to create a मजबूत and stable framework. These bones are large and designed to bear body weight and facilitate movement.
An analogy is a strong Base or foundation of a building that supports upper structures and connects them to the ground.
In summary, identifying the components of the pelvic girdle requires understanding its role in support, movement, and structural integrity.
(A) The hormone erythropoietin stimulates erythropoiesis.
(B) Gastrin stimulates the synthesis of HCI and pepsinogen.
(C) Gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits gastrin. secretion and decreases peristalsis.
(D) The hormone Erythropoietin is secreted by the duodenum.
Explanation: This question requires identifying an incorrect statement among several related to hormones and their functions in the human body.
Hormones regulate various physiological processes, including blood cell formation, Digestion, and metabolic activities. Each hormone is secreted by a specific organ and has a defined function. Understanding these relationships is crucial for spotting incorrect pairings.
To solve this, carefully analyze each statement by recalling the correct source and function of each hormone. Compare the given information with standard biological knowledge to identify any mismatch or inconsistency.
Think of it like checking facts in a report—most statements may be correct, but one contains an error that stands out when compared with verified information.
In summary, solving this involves evaluating each statement critically and identifying the one that does not align with established biological facts.
Option d – The hormone Erythropoietin is secreted by the duodenum.
Identify the INCORRECT match with respect to the disorders and their symptoms.
(A) Diabetes insipidus Water loss and dehydration
(B) Diabetes mellitus – Loss of glucose through urine and formation of ketone bodies
(C) Addison’s Disease – Acute weakness and fatigue
(D) Exophthalmic goiter – Decreased basal metabolic rate and shrinking of the thyroid gland
Explanation: This question focuses on matching specific disorders with their symptoms and identifying the incorrect pairing among them.
Each Disease has characteristic symptoms caused by underlying physiological or hormonal imbalances. Accurate knowledge of these associations is essential for diagnosis and understanding Disease mechanisms.
To approach this, recall the defining symptoms of each listed disorder. Compare them with the descriptions provided and identify any mismatch where the symptoms do not correspond to the known condition.
An analogy would be matching keys to locks—most pairs fit correctly, but one does not align, indicating an incorrect match.
In summary, identifying the incorrect match requires careful comparison of Disease characteristics with their typical symptoms.
Option d – Exophthalmic goiter – Decreased basal metabolic rate and shrinking of the thyroid gland
(A) between lungs behind the sternum on the ventral side of the aorta
(B) one at the anterior part of each kidney
(C) is present in the scrotal sac of male individuals
(D) on the back side of the thyroid gland
Explanation: This question asks about the anatomical location of the thymus gland, which is an important organ in the immune system.
The thymus plays a vital role in the development and maturation of T lymphocytes, which are essential for adaptive immunity. It is most active during childhood and gradually reduces in size with age.
To solve this, recall the general location of endocrine and lymphoid organs in the body. The thymus is situated in a region associated with the chest and is closely related to major blood vessels and the sternum.
Think of it as a training center for immune cells located in a protected central area of the body.
In summary, identifying the thymus location requires understanding its role in immunity and its position within the thoracic region.
Option a – between lungs behind the sternum on the ventral side of the aorta
The functioning of this hormone is antagonistic to aldosterone
(A) ANF
(B) glucagon
(C) TCT
(D) PTH
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying a hormone that works in opposition to aldosterone, highlighting the concept of hormonal antagonism in regulating body functions.
Aldosterone is involved in maintaining electrolyte balance by promoting sodium retention and potassium excretion in the kidneys. Hormonal antagonism occurs when one hormone produces effects that counteract another, helping maintain internal balance or homeostasis.
To approach this, recall that if aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and water retention, an antagonistic hormone would promote the opposite effect—reducing sodium retention or increasing its excretion. Such balancing mechanisms are essential for controlling blood pressure and Fluid levels.
An analogy is a thermostat system where one mechanism increases temperature while another reduces it, ensuring balance is maintained.
In summary, identifying the hormone requires understanding how opposing hormonal actions regulate Fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.
Explanation: This question asks about the specific secretion of beta cells located in the islets of Langerhans within the pancreas.
The pancreas has both exocrine and endocrine functions. The endocrine portion consists of clusters of cells called islets of Langerhans, which contain different cell types, each producing distinct hormones that regulate blood glucose levels.
To solve this, recall that beta cells play a central role in lowering blood glucose levels. They respond to increased blood sugar by releasing a hormone that facilitates the uptake and storage of glucose in cells.
Think of beta cells as regulators that help bring down excess sugar in the bloodstream, ensuring stable energy availability.
In summary, identifying the secretion of beta cells involves understanding their role in maintaining glucose homeostasis in the body.
Option c – insulin
Which of the following receptor is NOT located in the skin?
(A) Thermoreceptor
(B) Tangoreceptor
(C) Tactile receptor
(D) Statoreceptor
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of sensory receptors and their distribution in the human body, particularly those present in the skin.
The skin contains various receptors responsible for detecting temperature, touch, pressure, and pain. These receptors help the body respond to environmental stimuli and maintain awareness of surroundings.
To answer this, recall the different types of receptors: thermoreceptors detect temperature, tactile receptors sense touch, and other receptors may detect position or balance but are located elsewhere in the body. By identifying which receptor type is not associated with the skin, you can determine the correct choice.
An analogy is a control panel where each button has a specific function, but some functions belong to entirely different systems.
In summary, identifying the correct option requires understanding the functions and locations of different sensory receptors.
Option d – Statoreceptor
Which of the following is NOT a function of thymosin? ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(A) It plays a major role in the differentiation of T lymphocytes.
(B) It promotes the production of antibodies.
(C) It regulates blood calcium levels.
(D) It influences cell-mediated immunity.
Explanation: This question focuses on the functions of thymosin, a hormone secreted by the thymus gland, and requires identifying an option that does not match its role.
Thymosin is primarily involved in the development and maturation of T lymphocytes, which are crucial for immune responses. It plays a key role in strengthening cell-mediated immunity.
To solve this, recall the specific functions associated with thymosin, such as promoting T-cell differentiation and supporting immune system development. Then compare these with the given options to find one that is unrelated to immune function.
Think of thymosin as a trainer that prepares immune cells for defense, rather than regulating unrelated physiological processes.
In summary, identifying the incorrect function requires distinguishing thymosin’s immune-related roles from other unrelated biological functions.
Option c – It regulates blood calcium levels.
Myosin filament
(A) are a thin filament and a polymerized protein
(B) lacks an active site for actin
(C) goes back to a relaxed state after releasing ADP and P₁
(D) is made up of a thick globular head with two long arms
Explanation: This question is about the structure and characteristics of myosin filaments, which are essential components of muscle contraction.
Muscle fibers contain two main types of filaments: actin (thin) and myosin (thick). Myosin filaments have a distinct structure that allows them to interact with actin during contraction through cross-bridge formation.
To approach this, recall that myosin molecules consist of a head and tail region. The head has binding sites for actin and ATP, enabling movement during contraction. The structural arrangement of these filaments determines how muscles generate force.
An analogy is a rowing mechanism where oars (myosin heads) pull on water (actin filaments) to create movement.
In summary, understanding myosin filament structure is key to explaining how muscles contract and generate force.
Option c – goes back to a relaxed state after releasing ADP and P₁
Which of the following is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system? ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(A) Relaxes gall bladder
(B) Decreases urine output
(C) Increases the rate of heartbeat
(D) Stimulates secretion of saliva
Explanation: This question examines the role of the parasympathetic nervous system, a division of the autonomic nervous system responsible for conserving energy and maintaining routine bodily functions.
The autonomic nervous system has two main divisions: sympathetic (fight or flight) and parasympathetic (rest and digest). The parasympathetic system promotes activities that occur during restful states, such as Digestion and energy storage.
To solve this, recall that parasympathetic actions generally slow down heart rate, stimulate digestive processes, and promote relaxation. By comparing these functions with the given options, you can identify the correct one.
Think of it as the body’s “maintenance mode,” where processes are optimized for recovery and conservation.
In summary, identifying the function requires understanding how the parasympathetic system supports restful and restorative bodily activities.
Option d – Stimulates secretion of saliva
The hormone which stimulates the conversion of glycogenesis :
(A) androgen
(B) ADH
(C) glucagon
(D) insulin
Explanation: This question deals with the hormonal regulation of glycogenesis, the process of converting glucose into glycogen for storage in the body.
Glycogenesis occurs primarily in the liver and muscles and is essential for maintaining blood glucose balance. Hormones play a key role in regulating whether glucose is stored or released into the bloodstream.
To approach this, recall that certain hormones promote storage of glucose when its levels are high, while others stimulate breakdown when levels are low. The hormone responsible for glycogenesis encourages cells to take up glucose and convert it into glycogen.
An analogy is storing excess Food in a pantry for future use when supply is abundant.
In summary, identifying the hormone requires understanding how the body regulates glucose storage through endocrine control.
Option d – insulin
Read the statements and select the correct option. i. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron. ii. Shortening of the sarcomere is caused due to inwards pulling of Z lines attached to actins. iii. During muscle contraction, the ‘I’ bands retain their length and the ‘A’ bands get reduced.
(A) i, ii and iii are incorrect
(B) i, ii and iii are correct
(C) i i is correct, ii and iii are incorrect
(D) i i and ii are correct and iii is incorrect
Explanation: This question involves evaluating multiple statements related to muscle contraction and identifying which are correct based on biological principles.
Muscle contraction occurs through the sliding filament mechanism, where actin and myosin filaments interact within the sarcomere. This process is initiated by signals from the nervous system and involves structural changes in muscle fibers.
To solve this, analyze each statement individually. Recall that contraction begins with a neural signal, leads to shortening of the sarcomere, and involves changes in specific bands within the muscle fiber. By comparing each statement with known concepts, you can determine their correctness.
An analogy is a mechanical system where components move in a coordinated manner to produce motion.
In summary, solving this requires careful evaluation of each statement using knowledge of muscle physiology and contraction mechanisms.
Option d – i i and ii are correct and iii is incorrect
Pick out the CORRECT statement. ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(A) The tectorial membrane is a thin elastic membrane located in the middle ear.
(B) The organ of Corti is a structure located on the basilar membrane.
(C) Crista ampullaris lacks hair cells.
(D) The membranous labyrinth is surrounded by a Fluid called endolymph.
Explanation: This question requires identifying a correct statement related to structures of the ear and associated sensory mechanisms.
The human ear is divided into outer, middle, and inner regions, each with specific structures and functions. These structures play roles in hearing and balance, involving membranes, Fluid-filled chambers, and sensory cells.
To approach this, recall the correct locations and functions of components such as the basilar membrane, organ of Corti, and other structures. Evaluate each statement by checking whether it accurately describes these anatomical features.
Think of it as verifying labels on a diagram—only one correctly matches the structure and its function.
In summary, identifying the correct statement involves understanding ear Anatomy and the roles of its various components.
Option b – The organ of Corti is a structure located on the basilar membrane.
Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: Epinephrine is an amino Acid derivative. Statement II: Estradiol is a steroid hormone.
(A) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
(B) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.
(C) Both Statements I and II are correct.
(D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of hormone types and their biochemical nature by evaluating two given statements.
Hormones can be classified based on their chemical structure, such as amino Acid derivatives or steroid hormones. Each type has distinct properties and modes of action in the body.
To solve this, recall examples of hormones and their classifications. Determine whether each statement correctly identifies the nature of the hormone mentioned. Then evaluate both statements together to find the correct combination.
An analogy is classifying substances based on their composition, like distinguishing between Metals and non-Metals.
In summary, solving this requires understanding hormone classification and verifying the accuracy of each statement.
Option c – Both Statements I and II are correct.
Assertion: Repeated activation of the muscles during strenuous exercises can cause fatigue. Reason: Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen causes the accumulation of lactic Acid in muscles. ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) The assertion is true and the reason is false.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Explanation: This question examines the relationship between muscle fatigue during intense exercise and the biochemical processes occurring within muscle cells, particularly under low oxygen conditions.
During strenuous activity, muscles require rapid energy production. When oxygen supply becomes insufficient, cells shift from aerobic Respiration to anaerobic pathways, leading to the breakdown of glycogen. This process results in the formation of by-products that affect muscle performance.
To solve this, analyze both the assertion and the reason separately. Muscle fatigue is commonly associated with prolonged or repeated contraction, which alters the internal chemical Environment of muscle fibers. The reason suggests a biochemical cause linked to energy metabolism. Evaluating whether this cause directly explains the fatigue is key.
An analogy is a car engine running without enough oxygen for combustion, leading to inefficient energy use and buildup of waste products that reduce performance.
In summary, understanding muscle fatigue requires linking physiological activity with underlying metabolic changes and evaluating their causal relationship.
Option a – Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Which of the following nerve does NOT originate from the lateral side of the medulla oblongata?
(A) Vestibulocochlear
(B) Glossopharyngeal
(C) Vagus
(D) Trochlear
Explanation: This question focuses on the origin of cranial nerves in relation to the medulla oblongata, a vital part of the brainstem responsible for regulating essential functions.
Cranial nerves arise from different regions of the brain, including the forebrain, midbrain, pons, and medulla. The medulla specifically gives rise to several nerves, many of which emerge from its lateral surface and serve functions related to swallowing, speech, and visceral control.
To approach this, recall which cranial nerves originate from the medulla and their points of emergence. Then identify the nerve that originates from a different region, such as the midbrain, rather than the lateral side of the medulla.
Think of it like identifying which road does not start from a particular junction—most originate there, but one begins elsewhere.
In summary, solving this requires knowledge of cranial nerve origins and distinguishing those that do not arise from the lateral medulla.
Option d – Trochlear
Which one of the following will happen if the medium surrounding the cell has a higher concentration than the cell? ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(a) The cell will gain water.
(b) The cell will die.
(c) There will be no change.
(d) The cell will lose water.
Explanation: This question deals with osmosis and how cells respond when placed in a solution with a higher solute concentration compared to their internal Environment.
Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to higher solute concentration. When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the external Environment has more solutes than the inside of the cell.
To solve this, recall that water will move out of the cell to balance the concentration difference. This results in a decrease in cell volume and can affect cell function. The direction of water movement is key to understanding the outcome.
An analogy is a sponge placed in a salty solution—it loses water and shrinks because water moves outward.
In summary, understanding osmotic principles helps determine how cells behave in different concentration environments.
Option d – The cell will lose water
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) looks rough under the microscope because of the attachment of which following cell organelles to the surface.
(a) Centrioles.
(b) Plastids.
(c) Lysosomes.
(d) Ribosomes.
Explanation: This question focuses on the structural appearance of the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the reason behind its “rough” texture when observed under a microscope.
The endoplasmic reticulum is a Network of membranes involved in protein and lipid synthesis. It exists in two forms: smooth and rough. The rough variant has a distinct appearance due to the presence of small particles attached to its surface.
To answer this, recall that these attached particles are responsible for protein synthesis. Their presence gives the surface a dotted or granular appearance under magnification. Identifying these structures helps explain the functional difference between rough and smooth ER.
An analogy is a conveyor belt with workers attached along it, giving it a textured look while actively producing goods.
In summary, the rough appearance is due to specific structures attached to the ER that play a role in protein production.
Option d – Ribosomes
The increase in length of stems and roots in plants is due to ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(a) lateral meristem.
(b) intercalary meristem.
(c) apical meristem.
(d) secondary growth.
Explanation: This question asks about the type of plant tissue responsible for the elongation of stems and roots, which is a key aspect of plant growth.
Plant growth occurs due to the activity of meristematic tissues, which are regions of actively dividing cells. Different types of meristems contribute to growth in length or thickness.
To solve this, recall that growth in length occurs at specific regions located at the tips of roots and shoots. These regions contain cells that divide rapidly and contribute to elongation.
An analogy is a growing rope where new material is added at one end, increasing its length.
In summary, identifying the correct tissue involves understanding how plant growth is organized and which regions contribute to elongation.
Option c – apical meristem
In plant cells, turgidity and rigidity are provided by
(a) ribosomes.
(b) mitochondria.
(c) Golgi apparatus.
(d) Vacuoles full of cell sap.
Explanation: This question focuses on the internal structure responsible for maintaining turgidity and rigidity in plant cells.
Plant cells maintain their shape and structural integrity through internal pressure known as turgor pressure. This pressure results from the accumulation of water within a specific cell component.
To approach this, recall that a large central structure in plant cells stores water and dissolved substances. When filled, it presses against the cell wall, providing rigidity and support.
An analogy is an inflated balloon inside a box—the pressure from within keeps the structure firm.
In summary, identifying the correct component requires understanding how water storage contributes to maintaining plant cell structure.
Option d – Vacuoles full of cell sap
Which of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation? ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(a) Red algae.
(b) Brown algae.
(c) Green algae.
(d) Blue-green algae.
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of Organisms involved in biological nitrogen fixation, a process essential for converting atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms for plants.
Nitrogen fixation is carried out by certain microorganisms that possess specialized enzymes capable of converting nitrogen gas into ammonia. These Organisms may live freely or in symbiotic association with plants.
To solve this, recall which groups of Organisms are known for nitrogen fixation. Some are photosynthetic and commonly found in aquatic environments, while others live in soil or root nodules.
An analogy is a factory that converts unusable raw material into a form that can be used by others in the ecosystem.
In summary, identifying the correct organism requires understanding the biological process of nitrogen fixation and the Organisms that perform it.
Explanation: This question asks about the substance released as a by-product during the process of photosynthesis in plants.
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert Lightenergy into chemical energy, producing glucose from carbon dioxide and water. During this process, certain molecules are split, leading to the release of a by-product.
To solve this, recall that water molecules are broken down during the Light reactions, releasing a gas as a by-product. This gas is then released into the Atmosphere and plays a crucial role in supporting life on Earth.
An analogy is a manufacturing process where, along with the main product, a secondary product is also released.
In summary, identifying the by-product requires understanding the chemical reactions involved in photosynthesis.
Option b – O₂
In persons addicted to Alcohol, the liver gets damaged because it ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
Explanation: This question focuses on the reason behind liver damage in individuals who consume excessive Alcohol over long periods.
The liver is responsible for detoxifying harmful substances, including Alcohol. When Alcohol is consumed frequently, the liver must continuously process it, which places significant stress on liver cells.
To approach this, recall that prolonged exposure to toxic substances can lead to structural and functional damage. Alcohol metabolism produces substances that can harm liver cells and interfere with normal metabolic processes.
An analogy is a filter that is overused continuously—it eventually becomes damaged and less effective.
In summary, understanding liver damage requires recognizing the effects of chronic Alcohol exposure and the liver’s role in detoxification.
Option d – accumulates an excess of fats
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Bacteria contain cytoplasm but viruses do not.
(b) Bacteria contain mitochondria but viruses do not.
(c) Viruses contain mitochondria but bacteria do not.
(d) Viruses have a cell membrane but bacteria do not.
Explanation: This question requires identifying a correct statement related to differences between bacteria and viruses.
Bacteria and viruses differ significantly in structure, function, and classification. Bacteria are living cells with cellular components, while viruses are non-cellular and depend on host cells for replication.
To solve this, recall key differences such as the presence or absence of cellular structures like cytoplasm, organelles, and membranes. Evaluate each statement based on these characteristics.
An analogy is comparing a fully functional machine (bacteria) with a simple program that requires a host system to operate (virus).
In summary, identifying the correct statement involves understanding the fundamental differences between bacterial and viral structures.
Option a – Bacteria contain cytoplasm but viruses do not
Which one of the following body parts/organs of the human body does not have smooth muscles? ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 NEET Questions )
(a) Ureters.
(b) Iris of eye.
(c) Bronchi of lungs.
(d) Biceps.
Explanation: This question asks you to identify a body part that does not contain smooth muscle tissue, focusing on differences between muscle types and their locations in the body.
Smooth muscles are involuntary and found in the walls of internal organs such as the digestive tract, blood vessels, and certain parts of the eye. They help in processes like movement of Food, regulation of blood flow, and automatic physiological responses.
To solve this, recall that muscle tissue is classified into skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. Smooth muscles are not present in structures responsible for voluntary movement. Instead, skeletal muscles are attached to bones and enable conscious actions like lifting or walking.
An analogy is comparing automatic systems (smooth muscles) with manual controls (skeletal muscles). Some body parts rely entirely on voluntary control and therefore lack smooth muscle.
In summary, identifying the correct organ requires distinguishing between voluntary and involuntary muscle types and their anatomical locations.
Option d – Biceps
Marsilea, Fern, and Horse-tail are examples of which one of the following plant groups?
(a) Pteridophyta.
(b) Bryophyta.
(c) Gymnosperms.
(d) Angiosperms.
Explanation: This question focuses on classifying certain plants into the correct group based on their structural and reproductive characteristics.
Plants are broadly classified into groups such as algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. Each group has distinct features related to vascular tissue, reproduction, and complexity.
To approach this, recall that Marsilea, ferns, and horsetails are vascular plants that reproduce through spores rather than seeds. They have well-developed roots, stems, and leaves but lack flowers and fruits.
An analogy is grouping tools based on function—although they may look different, they share a common working principle that places them in the same category.
In summary, identifying the plant group requires understanding shared characteristics such as vascular tissue and mode of reproduction.
Option a – Pteridophyta
Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Explanation: This question asks you to identify a function that is not associated with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER), highlighting differences between cellular organelles.
The SER is involved in lipid synthesis, detoxification, and production of steroid hormones. It lacks ribosomes on its surface, which distinguishes it from the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
To solve this, recall that protein synthesis is primarily carried out by ribosomes attached to the RER, not the SER. By comparing the known functions of SER with the given options, the incorrect function can be identified.
An analogy is two departments in a factory—one produces proteins while the other handles lipids and detoxification. Mixing up their roles leads to incorrect conclusions.
In summary, identifying the incorrect function requires understanding the specific roles of smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Option d – Synthesis of steroid hormone
Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as a storehouse of digestive enzymes?
(a) Desmosome.
(b) Ribosome.
(c) Lysosome.
(d) Vacuoles.
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the organelle responsible for storing enzymes that break down waste materials and cellular debris.
Cells contain specialized organelles for Digestion and recycling of materials. These organelles contain hydrolytic enzymes that can degrade macromolecules and damaged cell parts.
To approach this, recall that certain organelles act like recycling centers within the cell. They store enzymes capable of breaking down substances and are involved in processes like autophagy.
An analogy is a waste disposal unit in a household that processes garbage and keeps the Environment clean.
In summary, identifying the correct organelle requires understanding intracellular Digestion and the storage of digestive enzymes.
Option c – Lysosome
Pollens are produced in
(a) Corolla.
(b) Style.
(c) Stigma.
(d) Anther.
Explanation: This question asks about the part of a flower where pollen grains are produced, focusing on plant reproductive structures.
Flowers are the reproductive organs of angiosperms and consist of several parts, each with a specific function. The male reproductive structure is responsible for producing pollen, which contains the male gametes.
To solve this, recall the structure of a flower, including parts like the stamen, pistil, and petals. The pollen-producing structure is a component of the male reproductive organ.
An analogy is a manufacturing unit where specific sections are dedicated to producing particular products—in this case, pollen grains.
In summary, identifying the correct part requires understanding the Anatomy of a flower and the role of its reproductive structures.
Option d – Anther
Which of the following Organisms belongs to Coelenterata (Cnidaria)?
(a) Planaria and liver fluke.
(b) Sea urchin and sea cucumber.
(c) Hydra and sea anemone.
(d) Euplectella and sycon.
Explanation: This question tests knowledge of Animal classification, specifically identifying Organisms that belong to the phylum Coelenterata, also known as Cnidaria.
Cnidarians are simple aquatic animals characterized by radial symmetry, a single opening for Digestion, and specialized stinging cells called cnidocytes. They are mostly marine and include Organisms with soft bodies.
To solve this, recall examples of cnidarians and their distinguishing features. Compare these characteristics with the Organisms listed in the options to identify the correct group.
An analogy is recognizing members of a family based on shared traits, such as body structure and habitat.
In summary, identifying the correct Organisms requires understanding the defining features of the Cnidaria phylum.
Option c – Hydra and sea anemone
The bending of the shoot of a plant towards Light can be referred to as
(a) photonasty.
(b) positive phototropism.
(c) negative phototropism.
(d) photoperiodism.
Explanation: This question focuses on plant responses to environmental stimuli, specifically how shoots respond to Light.
Plants exhibit growth movements in response to external factors such as Light, gravity, and touch. These responses are regulated by plant hormones that influence cell elongation.
To solve this, recall that when a plant shoot grows toward a Light source, it is responding positively to that stimulus. This directional growth is categorized based on the type of stimulus involved.
An analogy is a person turning toward a source of Light in a dark room to see better.
In summary, identifying the correct term requires understanding how plants respond directionally to Light stimuli.
(a) the relationship between autotrophic Organisms.
(b) exchange of genetic material between two organisms.
(c) passage of Food (and thus energy) from one organism to another.
(d) modern entrepreneur establishment providing Food outlets.
Explanation: This question asks for the correct description of a Food chain, which is a fundamental concept in Ecology.
A Food chain represents the transfer of energy and nutrients from one organism to another in an ecosystem. It begins with producers and moves through various levels of consumers.
To approach this, recall that energy flows in a linear sequence, starting from plants or other producers and passing through herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers. Each step represents a trophic level.
An analogy is a relay race where energy is passed from one participant to the next in a sequence.
In summary, identifying the correct description requires understanding how energy and nutrients flow through Living Organisms in an ecosystem.
Option c – passage of Food (and thus energy) from one organism to another
Chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is associated with
(a) plastids.
(b) membranous vesicles.
(c) nucleoids.
(d) chromosomes.
Explanation: This question focuses on where chlorophyll is located in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria, which lack membrane-bound organelles.
Unlike eukaryotic plant cells, prokaryotic cells do not have chloroplasts. However, they still perform photosynthesis using specialized structures within the cell.
To solve this, recall that these bacteria contain internal membrane systems that house pigments like chlorophyll. These structures allow them to capture Light energy and carry out photosynthesis efficiently.
An analogy is setting up Solar panels on available surfaces when a dedicated structure is absent.
In summary, identifying the correct location requires understanding how prokaryotes adapt their internal structures to perform photosynthesis.
Option b – membranous vesicles
Consider the following techniques/phenomena: 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility 3. Gene silencing Which of the above is\are used to create transgenic crops?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
Explanation: This question evaluates knowledge of techniques used in creating transgenic crops, focusing on modern Biotechnology methods.
Transgenic crops are developed by introducing new genes into plants to enhance desirable traits such as resistance to pests or improved nutritional value. This involves advanced genetic manipulation techniques.
To solve this, analyze each listed technique and determine whether it directly involves genetic modification. Some methods relate to traditional propagation, while others involve altering gene expression or introducing new genes.
An analogy is upgrading a machine by adding new components versus simply repairing or modifying existing parts.
In summary, identifying the correct techniques requires understanding which methods involve direct genetic engineering to create transgenic plants.
Option b – 2 and 3
There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? 1. They can accumulate in the Environment, and contaminate water and soil. 2. They can enter the Food chains. 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question explores environmental and Health concerns associated with the use of nanoparticles in industrial applications. It focuses on understanding why these tiny particles can pose potential risks.
Nanoparticles are extremely small particles with a high surface area-to-volume ratio, making them highly reactive. Because of their size, they can easily interact with biological systems and environmental components in ways that larger particles cannot.
To solve this, consider how nanoparticles behave once released into the Environment. They can persist, accumulate in soil and water, and enter Living Organisms. Their small size allows them to cross biological barriers and potentially disrupt cellular processes, including the generation of reactive molecules.
An analogy is fine dust that spreads easily, settles everywhere, and is difficult to remove, potentially causing harm over time.
In summary, the concern arises from the ability of nanoparticles to accumulate, enter Food chains, and interact with biological systems in potentially harmful ways.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India? 1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome. 2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies. 3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have an adverse impact on Health. 4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have an adverse effect on Biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: This question addresses public concerns regarding genetically modified crops, specifically Bt brinjal, and the reasons behind resistance to its introduction.
Bt brinjal is developed using genetic engineering to introduce pest-resistant traits. While such crops offer agricultural benefits, they often raise concerns related to Health, environmental impact, and socio-economic factors.
To approach this, consider common concerns associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs). These include potential Health risks, ecological imbalance, effects on Biodiversity, and dependence on commercial seed suppliers. Public perception is influenced by both scientific uncertainty and socio-economic implications.
An analogy is the introduction of a new Technology that promises benefits but also raises questions about safety and long-term effects.
In summary, resistance to Bt brinjal stems from concerns about Health, environmental impact, and the broader consequences of adopting genetically modified crops.
Option c – 3 and 4 only
Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 1. To enable them to withstand drought 2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce 3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations 4. To increase their shelf life Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: This question focuses on the broader applications of genetic engineering in plants beyond pest resistance, highlighting advancements in agricultural Biotechnology.
Genetically engineered plants are developed to enhance various traits such as tolerance to environmental stress, improved nutritional content, and longer shelf life. These modifications aim to address global challenges like food security and Climate change.
To solve this, think about the different goals of plant Biotechnology. Scientists modify plants to survive harsh conditions like drought, increase the nutritional value of crops, and reduce post-harvest losses. Each of these applications contributes to improving agricultural productivity and sustainability.
An analogy is upgrading a device not just for protection but also for better performance and efficiency.
In summary, genetically engineered plants are created for multiple purposes, including stress tolerance, enhanced Nutrition, and improved storage characteristics.
Option c – 1, 2, and 4 only
Mycorrhizal Biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to 1. resist drought and increase absorptive area 2. tolerate extremes of pH 3. resist Disease infestation Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question examines the role of mycorrhiza in helping plants grow in degraded or nutrient-poor environments.
Mycorrhiza refers to a symbiotic association between fungi and plant roots. The fungal component enhances the plant’s ability to absorb water and nutrients, especially phosphorus, from the soil.
To approach this, recall that degraded soils often lack nutrients and may have extreme conditions such as unfavorable pH or moisture levels. Mycorrhiza improves plant survival by increasing root surface area, enhancing nutrient uptake, and providing resistance to stress and diseases.
An analogy is a support system that helps a struggling plant access more resources and withstand harsh conditions.
In summary, mycorrhiza aids plant growth in degraded areas by improving nutrient absorption, stress tolerance, and overall resilience.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
Recombinant DNA Technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. across different species of plants 2. from animals to plants 3. from microorganisms to higher organisms Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question focuses on the capabilities of recombinant DNA Technology in transferring genetic material between organisms.
Recombinant DNA Technology involves cutting and joining DNA fragments to create new genetic combinations. This allows scientists to introduce genes from one organism into another, regardless of species boundaries.
To solve this, consider the versatility of genetic engineering. It enables gene transfer across different species, including plants, animals, and microorganisms. This ability has led to the development of transgenic organisms with desirable traits.
An analogy is copying and pasting information between different documents, regardless of their original format.
In summary, recombinant DNA Technology allows gene transfer across a wide range of organisms, making it a powerful tool in Biotechnology.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V. Mohan Reddy, an Indian, born doctor working in the U.S.A. during February 2005?
(a) Research on human stem cells is likely to revolutionize the treatment of deadly diseases like cancer.
(b) A successful open heart procedure called arterial switch is performed on an infant.
(c) Research on genetic engineering can help in the treatment of deadly diseases like AIDS.
(d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of the nearly dead brain of a prematurely born infant.
Explanation: This question tests awareness of a significant medical achievement associated with a specific individual and time period.
Medical advancements often involve breakthroughs in surgical techniques or treatment methods that improve survival and quality of life. Identifying such achievements requires knowledge of notable developments in healthcare.
To approach this, consider the types of procedures that are considered landmark achievements, especially those involving complex surgeries or innovative techniques. These are often performed on challenging cases and represent major progress in medical science.
An analogy is a milestone event that sets a new standard in a particular field.
In summary, identifying the correct achievement involves recognizing major medical breakthroughs and their significance.
Option b – A successful open heart procedure called arterial switch is performed on an infant
Consider the following statements: 1. ELISA test is employed as the first and most basic test for an individual to detect cancer. 2. Almost 50 percent of human beings have Rh blood while the remaining have Rh- blood. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: This question involves evaluating multiple statements related to medical tests and blood group distribution, requiring careful analysis of their accuracy.
Different diagnostic tests are used for detecting diseases, each with specific applications. Similarly, blood group distribution varies among populations and follows genetic patterns.
To solve this, analyze each statement independently. Recall the purpose of diagnostic tests and verify whether they are correctly associated with specific diseases. Then consider statistical data about blood groups and check whether the given claim aligns with known facts.
An analogy is fact-checking two independent claims to determine whether each is valid.
In summary, solving this requires evaluating each statement carefully using knowledge of medical diagnostics and biological data.
Option d – Neither 1 nor 2
Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high-yielding varieties
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body
(c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino Acids
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D
Explanation: This question focuses on understanding the purpose and characteristic of genetically modified golden rice.
Golden rice is a well-known example of biofortification, where crops are genetically modified to enhance their nutritional value. It was developed to address deficiencies in essential nutrients.
To approach this, recall that golden rice contains a precursor of an important vitamin that is often lacking in diets, especially in developing regions. This modification helps improve Health outcomes related to nutrient deficiency.
An analogy is fortifying food with additional nutrients to improve its Health benefits.
In summary, identifying the correct statement requires understanding how genetic engineering is used to enhance the nutritional quality of crops.
Option b – Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body
Recently, “oil zapper” was in the news. What is it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly Technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest Technology developed for undersea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest Technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells.
Explanation: This question asks about a Technology referred to as “oil zapper,” highlighting its purpose and application in environmental management.
Environmental Pollution caused by oil spills and industrial waste is a major concern. Technologies have been developed to address such issues using biological or chemical methods.
To solve this, consider that “oil zapper” refers to a method designed to clean up oil contamination. Such technologies often involve the use of microorganisms or eco-friendly processes to break down pollutants.
An analogy is using natural cleaning agents to remove stubborn stains without harming the Environment.
In summary, identifying the correct description involves understanding modern eco-friendly technologies used for Pollution control.
Option a – It is an eco-friendly Technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
With reference to ‘stem cells, frequently in the news which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only. 2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs. 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question evaluates knowledge of stem cells and their applications in modern science and medicine.
Stem cells are undifferentiated cells capable of developing into various specialized cell types. They have significant potential in research, drug testing, and regenerative medicine.
To approach this, recall that stem cells can be derived from multiple sources and are not limited to a single type of organism. They are widely used in developing therapies and studying Disease mechanisms.
An analogy is a blank template that can be shaped into different forms depending on the requirement.
In summary, solving this requires understanding the properties, sources, and applications of stem cells in science and medicine.
Option b – 2 and 3 only
Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying bacteria commonly used in genetic engineering, highlighting their importance as tools in Biotechnology.
Certain bacteria play a crucial role in recombinant DNA technology due to their ability to transfer or replicate genetic material efficiently. These organisms are often used as Vectors or hosts in laboratory experiments.
To solve this, recall that one type of bacterium is widely used for cloning and gene expression because of its rapid growth and well-understood Genetics. Another is known for its natural ability to transfer DNA into plant cells, making it valuable in plant genetic engineering.
An analogy is using specialized tools for specific tasks—one tool helps copy information, while another delivers it into a target system.
In summary, identifying these bacteria requires understanding their roles in gene cloning and gene transfer processes in Biotechnology.
Option a – Escherichia and Agrobacterium
With reference to the recent developments in science which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an Animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.
Explanation: This question requires identifying an incorrect statement related to modern advancements in Biotechnology and Molecular biology.
Recent developments include techniques such as DNA manipulation, artificial synthesis of genetic material, and the ability to Culture cells outside the body. These innovations have expanded the possibilities in research and medicine.
To approach this, evaluate each statement based on current scientific capabilities. While many techniques are now possible, some claims may be exaggerated or inaccurate. Identifying the incorrect one requires distinguishing between established advancements and unsupported statements.
An analogy is reviewing a list of technological claims and identifying the one that is not yet feasible.
In summary, solving this involves critically analyzing each statement in light of known scientific developments.
Option a – Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species
Given: 1. Blood cells 2. Bone cells 3. Hair strands 4. Saliva Samples were taken for DNA testing in a criminal investigation. can be
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation: This question examines which biological samples are suitable for DNA analysis in forensic investigations.
DNA is present in most cells of the human body, and forensic science relies on extracting genetic material from various biological samples to identify individuals. Even small or degraded samples can often provide useful DNA.
To solve this, recall that DNA can be obtained from sources such as blood, bone, hair roots, and bodily fluids. The key requirement is the presence of cells containing genetic material.
An analogy is retrieving information from different types of storage devices—some may be more direct, but all can contain usable data.
In summary, identifying suitable samples requires understanding where DNA is present and how it can be extracted for analysis.
Option d – 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
‘RNA interference (RNA-i)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only
Explanation: This question focuses on the significance and applications of RNA interference (RNA-i) technology in modern biology.
RNA interference is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression by preventing the translation of specific messenger RNA. This mechanism allows scientists to “silence” genes selectively.
To approach this, consider the practical uses of gene silencing. RNA-i is valuable in research for studying gene function, as well as in developing therapies for diseases by targeting harmful genes.
An analogy is switching off a specific light in a room without affecting others, allowing precise control over which genes are active.
In summary, RNA-i technology is important because it enables targeted gene regulation for research and therapeutic purposes.
Option a – 1, 2 and 4
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules. Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated from restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases. Codes :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: This question evaluates the relationship between an assertion and a reason related to DNA manipulation techniques.
Modern Biotechnology allows scientists to cut and join DNA fragments from different sources, creating new genetic combinations. This is made possible by specialized enzymes that act on DNA molecules.
To solve this, analyze whether the assertion is scientifically accurate and whether the reason correctly explains it. The reason typically involves the use of enzymes that cut DNA at specific sites and others that join fragments together.
An analogy is editing a document using tools that allow cutting and pasting sections to create a new version.
In summary, solving this requires understanding DNA manipulation techniques and evaluating the logical connection between the assertion and reason.
Option a – Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): ‘DNA fingerprinting’ has become a powerful tool to establish the paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R): Trace evidence, such as hairs, saliva, and dried semen, are adequate for DNA analysis. Codes :
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Explanation: This question focuses on the application of DNA fingerprinting in forensic science and its supporting evidence.
DNA fingerprinting is a technique used to identify individuals based on unique patterns in their DNA. It is widely used in criminal investigations and paternity testing.
To approach this, evaluate the assertion regarding the usefulness of DNA fingerprinting and then examine whether the reason provides a valid explanation. The reason refers to the availability of biological samples that can be analyzed for DNA.
An analogy is identifying a person using unique fingerprints left at a scene, supported by evidence collected from various sources.
In summary, solving this requires understanding both the application of DNA fingerprinting and the role of biological evidence in supporting it.
Option a – Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA? 1. Researchers using Carbon 14 isotope 2. X-ray technician 3. Coal miner 4. Dyer and painter Select the correct answer by using the codes given below Codes :
(a) 2 alone
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation: This question examines occupational exposure to factors that can cause mutations or permanent changes in DNA.
Certain professions involve exposure to radiation, chemicals, or other mutagenic agents that can alter genetic material. These changes may increase the risk of Health issues over time.
To solve this, consider which professions involve regular exposure to such harmful factors. Ionizing radiation and certain chemicals are known to damage DNA and increase mutation rates.
An analogy is prolonged exposure to harmful environments gradually affecting the integrity of a structure.
In summary, identifying the correct professions requires understanding how environmental factors can influence DNA stability and cause mutations.
Option c – 1, 2 and 4
Assertion (A): Insect-resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting the Bt gene. Reason (R): The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Explanation: This question evaluates knowledge of genetically modified crops and the origin of the genes used in their development.
Transgenic cotton is engineered to resist insect pests by incorporating a gene that produces a toxin harmful to specific insects. This gene originates from a naturally occurring microorganism.
To approach this, analyze whether the assertion about the development of insect-resistant cotton is correct and whether the reason explains its origin. Understanding the source and function of the gene is key.
An analogy is borrowing a protective feature from one organism and introducing it into another to enhance its defense.
In summary, solving this requires understanding genetic engineering techniques and the relationship between gene origin and function.
Option b – Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Assertion (A): Dolly was the first cloned mammal. Reason (R): Dolly was produced by in vitro fertilization. ( NEET Biology Full Syllabus test )
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Explanation: This question focuses on cloning technology and the scientific achievement associated with Dolly the sheep.
Cloning involves creating a genetically identical organism using techniques such as somatic cell nuclear transfer. This process differs from conventional reproductive methods like in vitro fertilization.
To solve this, evaluate whether the assertion about Dolly is accurate and whether the reason correctly describes the method used. Understanding the distinction between cloning and fertilization is essential.
An analogy is copying a document exactly rather than creating a new version through combination of different sources.
In summary, solving this requires distinguishing between cloning techniques and other reproductive technologies.
Option d – A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): “DNA fingerprinting” has become a powerful tool to establish the paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R): Trace evidence such as hairs, saliva, and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis. Codes : ( NEET Biology Full Syllabus test )
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Explanation: This question evaluates the effectiveness of DNA fingerprinting and the role of biological evidence in forensic identification.
DNA fingerprinting relies on analyzing unique genetic patterns to identify individuals. It is widely used in criminal investigations and paternity cases due to its high accuracy.
To approach this, assess whether the assertion about its usefulness is correct and whether the reason explains why it is effective. The availability of biological samples containing DNA is crucial for this technique.
An analogy is solving a puzzle using unique pieces collected from different locations.
In summary, solving this requires understanding how DNA fingerprinting works and why biological evidence is sufficient for analysis.
Option a – Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research, consider the following statements 1. The only source of human stem cells is the embryos at the blastocyst stage. 2. The stem cells caisining can be derived without destruction to blastocysts. 3. The stem cells themselves in vitro can regenerate virtually forever. 4. Indian cell research centers also created line types that be developed into many can tissues. Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Explanation: This question evaluates understanding of modern developments in stem cell research, including their sources, properties, and applications.
Stem cells are unique because they can self-renew and differentiate into various specialized cell types. They can be derived from multiple sources, including embryos, adult tissues, and induced pluripotent cells. Advances in research have made it possible to obtain stem cells without necessarily destroying embryos, addressing ethical concerns.
To solve this, analyze each statement carefully. Some statements may incorrectly restrict stem cell sources, while others may correctly describe their regenerative ability or laboratory applications. Understanding the flexibility and advancements in stem cell extraction and use is key.
An analogy is having a versatile raw material that can be reshaped into many different products depending on need.
In summary, identifying the correct statements requires knowledge of stem cell sources, ethical advancements, and their regenerative capabilities.
Option d – 3 and 4
With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements: 1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 2. GM mustard has the genes that allow plant cross-pollination and hybridization. 3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question focuses on the characteristics and development of genetically modified mustard in India, requiring evaluation of multiple statements.
Genetically modified crops are engineered to introduce specific traits such as improved yield, pest resistance, or enhanced breeding efficiency. GM mustard has been developed using advanced Biotechnology techniques to improve agricultural productivity.
To approach this, examine each statement in terms of scientific accuracy. Consider whether the traits mentioned align with the known objectives of GM mustard development, such as hybridization efficiency rather than broad pest resistance.
An analogy is assessing features of a modified machine to see if they match its intended purpose.
In summary, solving this requires understanding the goals and genetic modifications involved in developing GM mustard.
Option b – 2 only
With reference to the use of nano-technology in the Health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology. 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: This question examines the applications of nanotechnology in the healthcare sector, particularly in treatment and advanced therapies.
Nanotechnology involves manipulating materials at an extremely small scale, enabling precise interactions with biological systems. In medicine, it has opened new possibilities for targeted drug delivery and advanced therapeutic techniques.
To solve this, evaluate each statement by considering how nanotechnology is used in healthcare. It can deliver drugs directly to specific cells, improving efficiency and reducing side effects. It also plays a role in emerging treatments such as gene therapy.
An analogy is using a highly precise delivery system that ensures medicine reaches exactly where it is needed without affecting surrounding areas.
In summary, identifying the correct statements requires understanding the role of nanotechnology in improving medical treatments and therapeutic approaches.
Option c – Both 1 and 2
We covered all the class 11 biology chapter 1 neet questions above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
Check out the latest mcq content by visiting our mcqtube website homepage.
My name is Vamshi Krishna and I am from Kamareddy, a district in Telangana. I am a graduate and by profession, I am an android app developer and also interested in blogging.