Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers. We covered all the Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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Explanation: This question asks you to identify which among several historical reports is unrelated to the concept of Fundamental Rights in India. Fundamental Rights are essential civil liberties guaranteed by the Constitution, and many pre-independence committees contributed ideas shaping them.
Several committees and reports during the freedom struggle focused on drafting constitutional frameworks for India. Reports like those by Motilal Nehru and Tej Bahadur Sapru discussed civil liberties, minority protections, and constitutional safeguards, which later influenced Fundamental Rights. However, not all commissions were concerned with these issues.
To solve this, examine the purpose of each report. Some were formed to address constitutional structure, federal relations, or governance issues rather than rights. For instance, commissions formed much later, especially post-independence, often dealt with Centre-State relations or administrative reforms rather than Fundamental Rights.
By categorizing each report based on its objective—whether it focused on civil liberties or administrative matters—you can identify the one that does not align with Fundamental Rights.
Think of it like sorting books in a library: some belong to “rights and freedoms,” while others are about governance or administration. The odd one out belongs to a different section.
In short, understanding the historical context and purpose of each report helps distinguish which one is unrelated to Fundamental Rights.
Option c – Sarkaria Commission Report
Which commission suggested that the Governor’s appointment should be impartial?
a) Fazal Ali Commission
b) Rajmannar Commission
c) Sarkaria Commission
d) Mandal Commission
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying a commission that recommended neutrality and fairness in the appointment of Governors in Indian states. The Governor plays a crucial constitutional role, especially in Centre-State relations.
Various commissions have examined Centre-State relations and the functioning of constitutional authorities. The role of the Governor has often been debated, particularly regarding political neutrality and independence from central influence. Ensuring impartiality helps maintain the federal balance.
To approach this, consider which commissions were specifically formed to review Centre-State relations. These commissions studied issues like misuse of constitutional provisions, the role of Governors, and recommendations to improve federal harmony. Their reports often emphasized that Governors should act without political bias.
Eliminate commissions that dealt with unrelated areas such as education, reservations, or administrative restructuring. Focus on those addressing constitutional governance and federal structure.
An easy way to understand this is to think of the Governor as a referee in a match. Just as a referee must be neutral for fair play, commissions have suggested similar impartiality for Governors to ensure fairness in governance.
Thus, by linking the function of the Governor with commissions studying federal relations, the correct recommendation can be identified.
Option c – Sarkaria Commission
The Constitution Review Commission, headed by _______, suggested measures for the effective implementation of Fundamental Duties.
a) MN Venkatachaliah
b) PK Joshi
c) Michael G Aguinaldo
d) UC Banerjee
Explanation: This question asks about the leadership of a commission that examined how Fundamental Duties can be effectively implemented. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution to promote responsible Citizenship and national discipline.
The Constitution Review Commission was formed to evaluate the working of the Constitution and suggest reforms. Fundamental Duties, though non-justiciable, are important for maintaining civic responsibility. Over time, concerns arose that these duties were not being followed actively, prompting recommendations for better awareness and enforcement.
To answer this, recall the major commissions that reviewed constitutional functioning. Focus on those established around the early 2000s, as this period saw serious discussions on strengthening constitutional values. The commission in question studied how duties could be made more meaningful through education, legal backing, and institutional support.
You can think of Fundamental Duties like guidelines in a classroom. While not always strictly enforced, their effectiveness depends on awareness and consistent practice. A committee reviewing them would naturally suggest ways to make them more impactful.
Thus, identifying the chairperson requires linking the commission’s purpose with its historical context and timeline.
Option a – MN Venkatachaliah
What is the total number of members in the Committee on Public Undertakings?
a) 15
b) 22
c) 30
d) 35
Explanation: This question is about the composition of the Committee on Public Undertakings, a key parliamentary committee responsible for examining the functioning of public sector enterprises.
Parliamentary committees are essential for detailed scrutiny of government activities. The Committee on Public Undertakings evaluates the performance, efficiency, and financial management of public sector companies. Its structure includes members from both Houses of Parliament to ensure balanced representation.
To approach this, recall standard compositions of major parliamentary committees. These committees typically have a fixed number of members, divided between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The number is designed to ensure effective discussion while maintaining representation.
Eliminate options that seem unusually large or too small compared to typical committee sizes. Most such committees have membership numbers that allow for efficient functioning without being overly cumbersome.
An analogy would be a project team in an organization: too few members limit diversity of views, while too many make coordination difficult. The committee size is chosen to strike a balance.
Therefore, understanding the general structure of parliamentary committees helps determine the correct number of members.
Option b – 22
The tenure of parliamentary standing committees is for how many years?
a) One
b) Four
c) Two
d) Three
Explanation: This question focuses on the duration for which members serve in parliamentary standing committees. These committees play a vital role in examining bills, budgets, and policies in detail.
Standing committees are permanent bodies, but their members are not permanent. Members are appointed for a fixed duration to ensure rotation, fresh perspectives, and accountability. This Periodic change helps maintain efficiency and prevents stagnation in functioning.
To answer this, consider how Parliament operates. Many parliamentary positions, including committee memberships, are structured to allow regular renewal. This ensures that different members get opportunities to contribute and that committees remain active and dynamic.
Eliminate options that suggest very long durations, as they would reduce flexibility. Similarly, extremely short durations may not allow members to understand issues deeply.
Think of it like a rotating team assignment in an organization, where members serve for a specific period before new members take over, ensuring continuity along with fresh ideas.
Thus, knowledge of parliamentary practices and rotation policies helps identify the correct tenure.
Option a – One
In which year was the Estimates Committee SET up for the first time in India?
a) 1951
b) 1952
c) 1949
d) 1950
Explanation: This question asks about the origin year of the Estimates Committee, an important financial committee of Parliament responsible for examining budget estimates.
The Estimates Committee plays a crucial role in suggesting improvements in government expenditure. It ensures that public funds are used efficiently and recommends alternative policies where necessary. Its establishment marked an important step in strengthening financial oversight in India.
To solve this, recall the early years after independence when parliamentary institutions were being organized. Many key committees were formed in the early 1950s as part of setting up a robust democratic system.
Eliminate years that fall outside this period, especially those before independence or significantly later. The formation of such committees was closely linked with the functioning of the first Parliament.
An easy way to understand this is to think of a newly formed company setting up audit and finance teams early on to ensure proper financial management.
Thus, placing the committee’s origin in the context of early parliamentary development helps identify the correct year.
Option d – 1950
Members of the Public Accounts Committee hold office for:
a) One year
b) Two years
c) Three years
d) Five years
Explanation: This question relates to the tenure of members in the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which is responsible for examining government expenditure and audit reports.
The PAC ensures that public funds are spent according to Parliament’s approval. Since financial oversight requires accountability and fresh scrutiny, the tenure of its members is kept limited. This allows different members to participate and ensures continuous monitoring.
To answer this, consider the pattern followed by most parliamentary committees. Membership duration is typically short to allow rotation and prevent long-term dominance by specific individuals.
Eliminate options that suggest very long tenures, as they would reduce accountability. Similarly, extremely short durations may not allow members to perform effectively.
You can compare this to an audit team in a company that changes periodically to maintain independence and objectivity in reviewing financial records.
Thus, understanding the principle of Periodic renewal in parliamentary committees helps determine the tenure of PAC members.
Explanation: This question asks about the specific part of the Indian Constitution that outlines how amendments can be made. Constitutional amendments are essential for adapting the Constitution to changing needs.
The Indian Constitution is designed to be both rigid and flexible. The amendment process ensures that changes can be made while preserving the core structure. These provisions are grouped under a specific Part, making it easier to locate rules governing amendments.
To approach this, recall how the Constitution is organized into Parts, each dealing with a specific subject such as Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, or Union-State relations. The amendment procedure is treated as a distinct subject.
Eliminate Parts that are known for other topics, such as rights or governance. Focus on the Part specifically dedicated to procedural and structural changes.
Think of the Constitution as a rulebook where each section has a clear theme. The amendment rules are placed in a dedicated section to maintain clarity and order.
Thus, familiarity with the structure of the Constitution helps identify the correct Part dealing with amendments.
Option a – Part XX
According to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, India is declared as:
a) Secular
b) Oligarchic
c) Capitalist
d) Aristocratic
Explanation: This question refers to a major constitutional amendment that introduced significant changes, including modifications to the Preamble of the Constitution.
The 42nd Amendment Act, often called the “Mini-Constitution,” brought several changes during a critical period in Indian History. One of its key contributions was adding specific descriptive terms to define the nature of the Indian state more clearly.
To answer this, recall the original Preamble and compare it with the changes introduced by this amendment. The amendment inserted new words that reflect ideological principles guiding the nation.
Eliminate options that do not align with democratic or constitutional values. The correct description must be consistent with India’s political philosophy and governance structure.
An analogy would be updating a mission statement of an organization to better reflect its values and vision. The amendment refined how India defines itself.
Thus, understanding the significance of the 42nd Amendment and its impact on the Preamble helps identify the correct description.
Option a – Secular
When was a National Emergency proclaimed for the first time under Article 352?
a) 1961–65
b) 1963–69
c) 1961–67
d) 1962–68
Explanation: This question asks about the first instance when a National Emergency was declared under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.
Article 352 allows the government to declare an Emergency in situations like war or external aggression. Such a declaration significantly alters the functioning of the government and the distribution of powers between the Centre and the states.
To solve this, recall major historical events involving national security threats. The first proclamation of Emergency is linked to a period when India faced external challenges shortly after independence.
Eliminate options that do not align with known historical conflicts or timelines. Focus on periods when the country faced serious threats requiring extraordinary measures.
You can think of it like a country activating a “crisis mode” during a major threat, which happens only during significant national emergencies.
Thus, connecting constitutional provisions with historical events helps identify the correct period of the first Emergency.
Option d – 1962–68
Which commission proposed 27% reservation for OBCs in government services?
a) Sarkaria Commission
b) Mandal Commission
c) Balwant Commission
d) Kothari Commission
Explanation: This question is about identifying the commission that proposed reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in government employment.
Reservation policies in India aim to promote Social justice and equality. Over time, various commissions were established to study backward classes and recommend measures to improve their representation in public services.
To answer this, recall commissions specifically formed to study Social and educational backwardness. These commissions collected data, analyzed inequalities, and suggested reservation percentages.
Eliminate commissions that dealt with unrelated topics like education reforms or Centre-State relations. Focus on those addressing Social justice and backward class welfare.
An analogy would be a survey team identifying underrepresented groups in an organization and recommending policies to ensure fair representation.
Thus, by linking the purpose of reservation policies with the work of relevant commissions, the correct recommendation can be identified.
Option b – Mandal Commission
The Dinesh Goswami Committee, SET up in 1990, was related to:
Explanation: This question asks about the focus area of the Dinesh Goswami Committee, which was established to address specific issues in the Indian political system.
Committees are often formed to suggest reforms in key areas such as elections, governance, or administration. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was SET up during a period when there was increasing concern about improving democratic processes.
To solve this, consider the context of the early 1990s, when discussions on improving transparency and fairness in political processes were prominent. The committee examined ways to strengthen democratic institutions.
Eliminate options that relate to unrelated areas like police reforms or constitutional duties. Focus on areas where reforms were widely debated at that time.
Think of it like reviewing the rules of a game to make it fairer and more transparent for all participants.
Thus, understanding the historical context and reform priorities of that period helps identify the area addressed by this committee.
Option c – Electoral reforms
As per Article 368, how many types of constitutional amendments are recognised?
a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) Five
Explanation: This question asks about the classification of constitutional amendments under Article 368. Amendments are essential for adapting the Constitution to evolving political, Social, and economic needs.
The Indian Constitution provides different procedures for amendments depending on the nature of the provision being changed. Some amendments require a simple majority, while others need a special majority or even ratification by states. This classification ensures flexibility while protecting important features.
To answer this, think about how the Constitution balances rigidity and flexibility. Amendments affecting federal structure or key provisions require stricter procedures, while less critical changes follow simpler processes.
Eliminate options that suggest too few or too many categories. The correct classification reflects a logical grouping based on the level of difficulty involved in passing amendments.
You can compare this to rules in an organization where minor changes are easy to implement, but major policy changes require broader approval.
Thus, understanding the different levels of amendment procedures helps identify the number of types recognized.
Option c – Three
The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act came into effect in which year?
a) 2015
b) 2001
c) 2009
d) 2020
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the year in which the 100th Constitutional Amendment became operational. This amendment is associated with territorial adjustments and agreements between neighboring countries.
The 100th Amendment is significant because it implemented a long-standing agreement involving exchange of enclaves and settlement of boundary issues. Such amendments reflect India’s commitment to resolving international disputes through legal and constitutional means.
To solve this, recall major diplomatic developments in recent History, especially those related to boundary agreements. The amendment was passed and implemented after prolonged negotiations and parliamentary approval.
Eliminate years that are either too early or too recent compared to when such agreements were finalized. Focus on the mid-2010s when major territorial adjustments were formalized.
Think of it like updating a map after resolving a border dispute, where legal approval ensures the changes are officially recognized.
Thus, connecting constitutional amendments with international agreements and their timelines helps determine the correct year.
Option a – 2015
Which Article of the Constitution, linked with President’s Rule in states, is considered the most debated?
a) Article 358
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 352
Explanation: This question asks about the constitutional provision governing President’s Rule that has been widely debated due to its potential for misuse.
President’s Rule allows the central government to take control of a state if its constitutional machinery fails. While this provision ensures stability, it has also been criticized for being used for political purposes, leading to debates on federalism.
To answer this, recall which Article specifically deals with the imposition of President’s Rule in states. This provision has been invoked multiple times in Indian History, often sparking controversy.
Eliminate Articles that deal with other types of emergencies or unrelated provisions. Focus on the one directly linked to state governance under exceptional circumstances.
An analogy would be a central authority stepping in to manage a local unit during a crisis, which can be helpful but may also raise concerns about overreach.
Thus, understanding the constitutional framework and historical debates helps identify the most controversial Article.
Option b – Article 356
Which Amendment Act of the Constitution introduced provisions for Municipalities?
a) 71st Amendment Act 1992
b) 97th Amendment Act 2011
c) 69th Amendment Act 1993
d) 74th Amendment Act 1992
Explanation: This question refers to the constitutional amendment that gave formal recognition to urban local bodies in India.
Municipalities are institutions of local self-government in urban areas. To strengthen decentralization and ensure democratic functioning at the grassroots level, specific constitutional provisions were introduced.
To solve this, recall the series of amendments in the early 1990s that focused on local governance. One amendment dealt with rural local bodies, while another focused on urban governance.
Eliminate options that relate to unrelated reforms or later amendments. Focus on those that specifically aimed at decentralization and strengthening local institutions.
Think of it like giving official authority and structure to city-level administrations, ensuring they function with defined powers and responsibilities.
Thus, understanding the reforms aimed at local governance helps identify the amendment related to municipalities.
Option d – 74th Amendment Act 1992
Which amendment extended the jurisdiction of High Courts to Union Territories?
a) 7th Amendment
b) 9th Amendment
c) 13th Amendment
d) 1st Amendment
Explanation: This question asks about a constitutional amendment that expanded the judicial reach of High Courts to include Union Territories.
Initially, judicial arrangements for Union Territories were different from states. Over time, to ensure uniformity and better access to justice, the jurisdiction of High Courts was extended.
To answer this, recall early constitutional amendments that dealt with reorganization and administrative adjustments. These amendments often addressed issues related to governance, Judiciary, and territorial administration.
Eliminate amendments that are known for unrelated changes, such as rights or economic policies. Focus on those dealing with administrative and judicial restructuring.
An analogy would be expanding the service area of a regional office to cover nearby regions for better accessibility.
Thus, linking judicial reforms with constitutional amendments helps identify the correct one.
Option a – 7th Amendment
Which directive was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
a) The State shall provide free and compulsory education
b) To organise Agriculture and Animal Husbandry on modern scientific principles
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying a Directive Principle of State Policy that was introduced through the 42nd Amendment.
Directive Principles guide the state in policymaking and aim to establish Social and economic democracy. The 42nd Amendment expanded these principles by adding new directives to address emerging concerns.
To solve this, recall the themes addressed during the 1970s, such as environmental protection and Social welfare. The amendment introduced provisions reflecting these priorities.
Eliminate options that were already part of the original Constitution or unrelated to the amendment’s focus. Focus on directives that align with modern concerns introduced during that period.
Think of it like updating guidelines in response to new challenges, such as adding environmental protection rules in response to growing awareness.
Thus, understanding the evolving priorities of governance helps identify the directive added by this amendment.
Which Amendment Act of the Constitution established the Goods and Services Tax Council?
a) 100th Amendment Act
b) 101st Amendment Act
c) 103rd Amendment Act
d) 102nd Amendment Act
Explanation: This question asks about the constitutional amendment responsible for introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) framework and establishing its governing council.
GST was introduced to unify India’s indirect tax system by replacing multiple taxes with a single comprehensive tax. The GST Council was created to ensure coordination between the Centre and states in tax matters.
To answer this, recall recent major economic reforms in India. GST implementation required a constitutional amendment because it altered the distribution of taxation powers.
Eliminate amendments unrelated to taxation or economic reforms. Focus on those specifically associated with GST implementation.
An analogy would be merging multiple toll systems into one unified system managed by a central coordinating body.
Thus, understanding the significance of GST and its institutional framework helps identify the amendment that established the council.
Option b – 101st Amendment Act
The 71st Constitutional Amendment included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in which Schedule?
a) Seventh
b) Sixth
c) Eighth
d) Fifth
Explanation: This question is about identifying the Schedule of the Constitution where certain languages were added through an amendment.
The Constitution recognizes multiple languages to preserve cultural diversity. These languages are listed in a specific Schedule, which has been expanded over time through amendments.
To solve this, recall which Schedule deals with recognized languages. This Schedule has been amended several times to include more languages reflecting India’s linguistic diversity.
Eliminate Schedules associated with other subjects like administration or tribal areas. Focus on the one specifically dedicated to languages.
Think of it like updating an official list of recognized languages in a country to reflect its cultural richness.
Thus, understanding the structure of constitutional Schedules helps identify where these languages were included.
Option c – Eighth
Regarding the Supreme Court’s judgement on the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, which of the following is correct? A. The Constitutional Bench had 5 judges. B. The Bench upheld 10% EWS reservation with a 3–2 majority. C. According to the Supreme Court’s ruling, the 103rd Constitutional Amendment was upheld as valid, even though it was argued that it infringes upon the basic structure of the Indian Constitution
a) A, B and C
b) A and C only
c) B and C only
d) A and B only
Explanation: This question examines key aspects of a Supreme Court judgment related to the 103rd Constitutional Amendment, which introduced reservation for economically weaker sections.
The case involved constitutional validity, judicial review, and the basic structure doctrine. The Supreme Court evaluated whether the amendment violated core constitutional principles while addressing Social justice.
To answer this, recall details such as the composition of the bench, the nature of the verdict, and the reasoning behind the decision. These elements are crucial in understanding the judgment.
Eliminate statements that contradict known judicial practices or outcomes. Focus on statements consistent with how constitutional benches function and deliver judgments.
An analogy would be a panel of experts evaluating whether a new rule aligns with the core values of an institution.
Thus, understanding judicial processes and constitutional principles helps identify the correct statements.
Option d – A and B only
Which of the following statements about the Committee on Public Undertakings is accurate? 1. It has a larger number of members from the Rajya Sabha than from the Lok Sabha. 2. The Chairperson of the Committee is chosen by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: This question requires identifying a correct statement about the Committee on Public Undertakings, which oversees public sector enterprises.
This committee examines reports and accounts of public undertakings and evaluates their efficiency and management. It includes members from both Houses of Parliament and plays a role in financial accountability.
To solve this, recall key features such as its composition, appointment of the chairperson, and functions. Understanding these aspects helps distinguish correct statements from incorrect ones.
Eliminate statements that contradict standard parliamentary procedures, such as incorrect representation or appointment methods.
Think of the committee as a review board that checks how government-owned companies are performing and whether public resources are used efficiently.
Thus, knowledge of parliamentary committees and their functioning helps identify the accurate statement.
Option a – 2 only
Which of the following statements regarding the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha is/are true? 1. It was first established as an ad-hoc body. 2. Only Lok Sabha members can lodge complaints about unethical behavior. 3. It is not permitted to consider cases that are sub-judice.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying correct statements about the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha, which is responsible for maintaining ethical conduct among Members of Parliament.
The Ethics Committee examines cases related to unethical behavior and misconduct of members. It plays an important role in ensuring accountability and maintaining the dignity of parliamentary proceedings. Initially, such committees were often formed as ad-hoc bodies before becoming permanent.
To answer this, evaluate each statement carefully. Consider whether the committee was originally ad-hoc, who is allowed to file complaints, and whether it can examine sub-judice matters. Parliamentary committees usually follow strict rules regarding jurisdiction and admissibility.
Eliminate statements that contradict general parliamentary practices, such as restrictions on complaints or interference in judicial matters.
Think of it like a disciplinary committee in an institution that ensures members follow ethical standards while respecting legal boundaries.
Thus, understanding the structure and functioning of the Ethics Committee helps determine which statements are correct.
Option c – 1 and 3 only
Under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following is not a ground for declaring Emergency?
a) War
b) External aggression
c) Internal disturbance
d) Armed rebellion
Explanation: This question asks you to identify which condition is not a valid ground for declaring a National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution.
Article 352 provides specific grounds on which an Emergency can be proclaimed, mainly related to threats to national security. These include situations that endanger the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
To solve this, recall the officially recognized grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Over time, amendments have refined these grounds, replacing broader terms with more precise ones to prevent misuse.
Eliminate options that clearly relate to national security threats such as war or aggression. Focus on identifying the condition that does not fall within the constitutional framework.
An analogy would be a rulebook that allows emergency measures only under clearly defined situations, preventing arbitrary use of power.
Thus, by comparing each option with the constitutional provisions, the incorrect ground can be identified.
Option c – Internal disturbance
Which of the following statements related to constitutional amendments is/are correct? 1. The procedure for amending the Constitution is mentioned in Article 368. 2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. 3. The special procedure under Article 368 gives constituent power to ordinary legislation.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question evaluates your understanding of the procedure and principles governing constitutional amendments in India.
The amendment process is primarily outlined in Article 368, which specifies how changes can be made to the Constitution. Amendments can be introduced in Parliament and require specific majorities depending on their nature.
To answer this, analyze each statement carefully. Confirm whether the amendment procedure is indeed mentioned in Article 368, whether a bill can be introduced in either House, and whether the procedure grants constituent power distinct from ordinary legislation.
Eliminate statements that misrepresent the nature of constitutional amendment powers or confuse them with ordinary legislative processes.
Think of it like modifying a rulebook where some changes require simple approval while others need broader consensus due to their importance.
Thus, understanding the legal framework and procedural requirements helps identify the correct statements.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
Which Constitutional Amendment made a Proclamation of Emergency immune from judicial review?
a) 39th Amendment
b) 40th Amendment
c) 42nd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment
Explanation: This question asks about a constitutional amendment that attempted to restrict judicial review over the proclamation of Emergency.
Judicial review is a fundamental feature of the Constitution, allowing courts to examine the legality of executive actions. However, during certain periods, amendments were introduced to limit this power, especially concerning Emergency provisions.
To solve this, recall major amendments made during the 1970s, a period marked by significant constitutional changes. Some of these amendments aimed to strengthen executive authority.
Eliminate amendments that are unrelated to Emergency provisions or judicial powers. Focus on those known for expanding government authority during extraordinary circumstances.
An analogy would be temporarily limiting the authority of an oversight body during a crisis, which can raise concerns about checks and balances.
Thus, understanding the historical context and constitutional changes helps identify the relevant amendment.
Option c – 42nd Amendment
Which of the following statements about a Constitutional Amendment Bill is incorrect?
a) It is governed by Article 368(2) of the Constitution.
b) A joint sitting of Parliament can be held to pass such a Bill.
c) State legislatures have no power to initiate a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
d) Prior approval of the President is not required to introduce such a Bill in Parliament.
Explanation: This question requires identifying an incorrect statement regarding the procedure for passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Such bills are governed by Article 368 and follow a special procedure distinct from ordinary legislation. They can be introduced in either House of Parliament and require specific majorities.
To answer this, examine each statement carefully. Consider whether joint sittings are allowed, whether state legislatures can initiate amendments, and whether prior presidential approval is required for introduction.
Eliminate statements that contradict known constitutional provisions, especially those that confuse amendment procedures with ordinary legislative processes.
Think of it like a special rule for making major changes in an organization, where stricter procedures apply compared to regular decisions.
Thus, understanding the unique features of amendment procedures helps identify the incorrect statement.
Option b – A joint sitting of Parliament can be held to pass such a Bill.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Estimates Committee is an ad hoc committee of Parliament. 2. The Railway Convention Committee is a standing committee of Parliament.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: This question tests your understanding of the nature of parliamentary committees, specifically whether they are ad hoc or standing committees.
Parliamentary committees are broadly classified into standing and ad hoc committees. Standing committees are permanent, while ad hoc committees are temporary and formed for specific purposes.
To solve this, recall which committees fall under each category. The Estimates Committee is a permanent body, while certain other committees may be temporary depending on their function.
Eliminate statements that incorrectly classify a committee’s nature. Focus on their duration and purpose to determine whether they are standing or ad hoc.
An analogy would be distinguishing between permanent departments in an organization and temporary task forces created for specific projects.
Thus, understanding the classification of parliamentary committees helps identify the correct statements.
Option d – Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following Emergencies is not provided in the Indian Constitution?
Explanation: This question asks you to identify a type of emergency that is not recognized under the Indian constitutional framework.
The Constitution provides specific types of emergencies to deal with extraordinary situations affecting the nation, states, or financial stability. These are clearly defined and limited in number.
To answer this, recall the three types of emergencies mentioned in the Constitution: National Emergency, State Emergency, and Financial Emergency.
Eliminate options that match these recognized categories. The remaining option, which does not align with constitutional provisions, is the correct choice.
Think of it like a system that allows only certain predefined emergency modes, preventing arbitrary expansion.
Thus, understanding the constitutional provisions related to emergencies helps identify the one that is not included.
In which state has President’s Rule been enforced the highest number of times?
a) Bihar
b) Karnataka
c) Manipur
d) Punjab
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the state where President’s Rule has been imposed most frequently.
President’s Rule is applied when a state government cannot function according to constitutional provisions. Its repeated use in a state often reflects political instability or governance challenges.
To solve this, recall states that have experienced frequent political changes, coalition breakdowns, or law-and-order issues. Such states are more likely to have faced repeated imposition of President’s Rule.
Eliminate states known for relatively stable political environments. Focus on those with a History of frequent governmental changes.
An analogy would be a branch of an organization requiring repeated intervention from the head office due to instability.
Thus, understanding political History and patterns of governance helps identify the state with the highest occurrences.
Option c – Manipur
Which one of the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is incorrect?
a) It examines the finance Accounts of the Union Government.
b) Fifteen of its members are elected from the Lok Sabha.
c) The Chairperson is elected by the members of the Committee.
d) The Speaker decides if a member can continue in another committee after being elected to the PAC.
Explanation: This question requires identifying an incorrect statement about the Public Accounts Committee, which is a key financial oversight body of Parliament.
The PAC examines audit reports and ensures that government expenditure is in line with Parliament’s approval. It consists of members from both Houses and operates under established procedures.
To answer this, evaluate each statement regarding its composition, functions, and leadership. Pay attention to details such as how many members come from each House and how the chairperson is selected.
Eliminate statements that contradict standard parliamentary practices or known features of the PAC.
Think of the PAC as an audit committee that verifies whether funds are used properly, ensuring accountability in financial matters.
Thus, understanding the structure and role of the PAC helps identify the incorrect statement.
Option c – The Chairperson is elected by the members of the Committee.
Which of the following committees does not include members from the Rajya Sabha?
a) Public Accounts Committee
b) Committee on Public Undertakings
c) Estimates Committee
d) Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs
Explanation: This question asks you to identify a parliamentary committee that is composed exclusively of members from one House and does not include members from the Rajya Sabha.
Most major parliamentary committees include members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha to ensure balanced representation. However, a few committees are composed solely of Lok Sabha members.
To solve this, recall the composition of major committees such as the Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings, which include members from both Houses.
Eliminate committees known for having representation from both Houses. Focus on those that are exclusively linked to the Lok Sabha.
An analogy would be a team formed from only one department within an organization, unlike others that include members from multiple departments.
Thus, understanding the composition of parliamentary committees helps identify the one without Rajya Sabha representation.
Option c – Estimates Committee
Which Constitutional Amendment introduced reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in education and government jobs?
a) 101st Amendment Act
b) 102nd Amendment Act
c) 122nd Amendment Act
d) 103rd Amendment Act
Explanation: This question asks about the amendment that enabled reservation for economically weaker sections in education and public employment. It reflects a shift from purely Social criteria to include economic factors.
Reservations in India were traditionally based on Social and educational backwardness. Over time, debates emerged about extending benefits to economically disadvantaged groups among the unreserved categories. This led to a constitutional amendment introducing provisions for EWS.
To solve this, recall recent amendments in the late 2010s that focused on economic criteria in reservation policies. This amendment inserted specific provisions allowing up to a certain percentage of reservation for EWS.
Eliminate older amendments that dealt with language, local governance, or judicial matters. Focus on those addressing Social justice reforms in recent years.
Think of it like expanding a welfare scheme to include a new group based on Income rather than traditional categories.
Thus, linking recent policy changes with constitutional amendments helps identify the correct one.
Option d – 103rd Amendment Act
According to Article 368, Parliament can amend the Constitution by which of the following methods? 1. Variation 2. Addition 3. Repeal
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: This question focuses on the scope of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Article 368. Amendments can modify existing provisions in different ways.
Article 368 gives Parliament the authority to alter the Constitution through various actions such as modifying, adding, or removing provisions. These actions ensure flexibility while maintaining the constitutional framework.
To answer this, analyze each method mentioned. Consider whether Parliament has the authority to change existing provisions, introduce new ones, or remove outdated provisions.
Eliminate options that restrict the scope unnecessarily or exclude valid methods. The Constitution allows a comprehensive range of modifications under the amendment process.
An analogy would be editing a document where you can revise existing text, insert new content, or delete obsolete sections.
Thus, understanding the full extent of amendment powers helps identify the correct combination of methods.
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements about the Estimates Committee of Parliament is incorrect?
d) It suggests the format in which estimates are presented before Parliament.
Explanation: This question asks you to identify an incorrect statement about the Estimates Committee, which plays a key role in financial oversight.
The Estimates Committee examines budget estimates and suggests improvements in government spending. It also recommends alternative policies to ensure efficiency and Economy in expenditure.
To solve this, evaluate each statement carefully. Consider aspects such as its tenure, functions, and role in examining financial documents. Some statements may confuse its functions with those of other committees like the Public Accounts Committee.
Eliminate statements that contradict known features, such as incorrect tenure or responsibilities not assigned to this committee.
Think of it like a planning team that reviews budgets and suggests improvements rather than auditing past expenses.
Thus, understanding the committee’s role and structure helps identify the incorrect statement.
Option a – Its tenure is five years.
Which of the following statements regarding a State under President’s Rule is/are correct? 1. The State budget during President’s Rule is passed by the Governor. 2. The procedure for passing the State budget follows the same process as the Union budget.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: This question examines the functioning of a state when President’s Rule is imposed under Article 356.
During President’s Rule, the state government is suspended, and the administration is carried out under the authority of the President through the Governor. Legislative powers may be exercised by Parliament or delegated authorities.
To answer this, analyze each statement about budget procedures and governance during this period. Consider whether the Governor independently passes the budget or whether parliamentary procedures are followed.
Eliminate statements that do not align with constitutional practices. The functioning of the state during President’s Rule follows specific rules to maintain continuity of governance.
An analogy would be a company branch being temporarily managed by the head office, with decisions taken centrally rather than locally.
Thus, understanding the administrative and financial processes during President’s Rule helps determine the correct statements.
Option b – 2 only
Under which Constitutional Amendment was the provision for OBC reservation in educational institutions introduced?
a) 94th Amendment
b) 95th Amendment
c) 96th Amendment
d) 93rd Amendment
Explanation: This question asks about the amendment that enabled reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in educational institutions.
Reservation policies have evolved over time to promote equality in education and employment. This amendment provided constitutional backing for implementing reservation in educational institutions, including private unaided institutions under certain conditions.
To solve this, recall amendments passed in the 2000s focusing on expanding access to education and social justice. This period saw significant reforms aimed at inclusive growth.
Eliminate amendments unrelated to education or social welfare. Focus on those specifically addressing reservation in educational institutions.
Think of it like expanding admission quotas in colleges to ensure representation from disadvantaged groups.
Thus, linking educational reforms with constitutional amendments helps identify the relevant one.
Option d – 93rd Amendment
Which Constitutional Amendment led to the creation of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)?
a) 99th Amendment
b) 95th Amendment
c) 97th Amendment
d) 96th Amendment
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the amendment that introduced the National Judicial Appointments Commission, aimed at reforming the appointment process of judges.
The NJAC was proposed to replace the collegium system, which had been criticized for lack of transparency. The amendment sought to create a more balanced and accountable system involving multiple stakeholders.
To answer this, recall recent judicial reforms and debates around the appointment of judges. This amendment was part of an effort to restructure the Judiciary’s appointment mechanism.
Eliminate amendments unrelated to judicial reforms. Focus on those specifically addressing appointments and institutional changes in the Judiciary.
An analogy would be changing the hiring process in an organization to include more participants for better transparency.
Thus, understanding judicial reform efforts helps identify the amendment associated with NJAC.
Option a – 99th Amendment
Through which Constitutional Amendment was Dadra and Nagar Haveli added to India as a Union Territory?
a) 19th Amendment
b) 14th Amendment
c) 12th Amendment
d) 10th Amendment
Explanation: This question asks about the amendment that formally incorporated a specific territory into India as a Union Territory.
After independence, several territories were integrated into India through constitutional amendments. These changes ensured proper administrative and legal recognition of new regions.
To solve this, recall early amendments dealing with territorial integration, especially those concerning regions that were formerly under foreign control.
Eliminate amendments associated with unrelated reforms. Focus on those that dealt with territorial changes and reorganization.
Think of it like officially adding a new region to a country’s administrative map through legal approval.
Thus, understanding the History of territorial integration helps identify the relevant amendment.
Option d – 10th Amendment
Which Constitutional Amendment affirmed Parliament’s authority to limit or take away Fundamental Rights under Article 368, declaring such a law valid despite Article 13? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) Twenty-third Amendment
b) Twentieth Amendment
c) Twenty-fourth Amendment
d) Twenty-eighth Amendment
Explanation: This question refers to a constitutional amendment that clarified Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights.
There was a debate on whether Parliament could amend Fundamental Rights, especially in Light of Article 13, which restricts laws that violate these rights. To resolve this, an amendment explicitly affirmed Parliament’s authority under Article 368.
To answer this, recall amendments made in response to judicial decisions that questioned Parliament’s powers. These amendments aimed to strengthen legislative authority.
Eliminate amendments unrelated to Fundamental Rights or amendment powers. Focus on those addressing the conflict between Articles 13 and 368.
An analogy would be clarifying rules in a system to remove ambiguity about who has the authority to make major changes.
Thus, understanding constitutional debates and amendments helps identify the correct one.
Option c – Twenty-fourth Amendment
The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 resulted in the establishment of which Commission? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) Competition Commission of India
b) National Commission for Backward Classes
c) National Commission for Women
d) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: This question asks about the institutional outcome of the 89th Constitutional Amendment.
The amendment aimed to restructure existing commissions dealing with marginalized communities. It led to the separation of responsibilities to ensure focused attention on specific groups.
To solve this, recall changes made to commissions related to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The amendment created a separate body to address the needs of one of these groups more effectively.
Eliminate options that relate to unrelated commissions such as economic or competition bodies. Focus on those dealing with constitutional safeguards for disadvantaged communities.
Think of it like dividing a large department into two specialized units for better efficiency.
Thus, understanding the purpose of the amendment helps identify the commission it established.
Option d – National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Which Constitutional Amendment recognized Sikkim as a state of India? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) 36th Amendment
b) 51st Amendment
c) 42nd Amendment
d) 30th Amendment
Explanation: This question asks about the amendment through which Sikkim became a full-fledged state of India.
Sikkim was initially associated with India under a special arrangement before being fully integrated as a state. This transition required a constitutional amendment to grant it full statehood and representation.
To solve this, recall historical developments in the 1970s when Sikkim’s political status changed. The amendment formalized its inclusion as a state within the Indian Union.
Eliminate amendments unrelated to territorial integration. Focus on those linked to changes in statehood status.
An analogy would be upgrading a region from a special administrative status to full membership within a larger system.
Thus, understanding the historical integration of Sikkim helps identify the relevant amendment.
Option a – 36th Amendment
Which Indian President gave approval to the 100th Constitutional Amendment? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) Pranab Mukherjee
b) Ram Nath Kovind
c) Pratibha Devisingh Patil
d) APJ Abdul Kalam
Explanation: This question asks you to identify the President who gave assent to the 100th Constitutional Amendment, which formalized a significant international boundary agreement.
In India, after a Constitutional Amendment Bill is passed by both Houses of Parliament, it is sent to the President for assent. The President’s approval is mandatory for the amendment to come into force. This step is largely formal but constitutionally essential.
To answer this, recall the timeline of the 100th Amendment, which came into effect in the mid-2010s. Then, connect this period with the President serving in office at that time.
Eliminate Presidents whose tenure does not match the timeframe of the amendment. Focus on those who held office during the relevant period.
Think of it like final authorization in a process, where a document becomes official only after the highest authority signs it.
Thus, linking the amendment’s timeline with the President’s tenure helps identify the correct individual.
Option a – Pranab Mukherjee
Which Constitutional Amendment conferred statehood on Goa? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) 52nd Amendment
b) 56th Amendment
c) 48th Amendment
d) 59th Amendment
Explanation: This question is about identifying the amendment that granted full statehood to Goa, elevating it from a Union Territory.
After its liberation, Goa was administered as a Union Territory. Over time, demands for full statehood grew, leading to a constitutional amendment that recognized Goa as a separate state with its own legislature and government.
To solve this, recall developments in the 1980s when Goa’s political status was upgraded. The amendment formalized this transition within the constitutional framework.
Eliminate amendments that relate to unrelated topics like reservations or judicial reforms. Focus on those dealing with territorial and administrative changes.
An analogy would be promoting a region from a branch office to a full-fledged independent unit within an organization.
Thus, understanding the political Evolution of Goa helps identify the amendment responsible for its statehood.
Option b – 56th Amendment
Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges of former princely rulers? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) 25th Amendment Act, 1971
b) 26th Amendment Act, 1971
c) 27th Amendment Act, 1971
d) 28th Amendment Act, 1972
Explanation: This question asks about the amendment that removed special privileges and financial allowances granted to former princely rulers after independence.
Privy purses were payments made to rulers of princely states as part of their integration into India. Over time, these were seen as inconsistent with democratic and egalitarian principles.
To answer this, recall constitutional changes made in the early 1970s aimed at promoting equality and removing feudal privileges. The amendment eliminated these payments and privileges.
Eliminate amendments unrelated to socio-economic reforms. Focus on those addressing issues of equality and abolition of special privileges.
Think of it like ending legacy benefits given to a select group to ensure fairness and equality in a system.
Thus, understanding the shift toward a more egalitarian society helps identify the amendment responsible.
Option b – 26th Amendment Act, 1971
In which year did the Indian government enact the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees mcq with Answers )
a) 1993
b) 1995
c) 1997
d) 1992
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying the year in which the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted, which strengthened rural local governance.
The 73rd Amendment introduced the Panchayati Raj system, giving constitutional status to local self-government in rural areas. It aimed to decentralize power and promote grassroots democracy.
To solve this, recall the early 1990s as a period of major reforms in local governance. This amendment was part of a broader effort to empower rural institutions.
Eliminate years that fall outside this period, especially those much earlier or later. Focus on the early 1990s when decentralization reforms were implemented.
An analogy would be empowering local branches of an organization to make decisions independently rather than relying entirely on central authority.
Thus, understanding the timeline of local governance reforms helps identify the correct year.
Option b – 1995
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment of 1992 introduced a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in states with a Population above: ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) 5 lakh
b) 15 lakh
c) 10 lakh
d) 20 lakh
Explanation: This question asks about the Population threshold above which a three-tier Panchayati Raj system is applicable.
The Panchayati Raj system consists of village, intermediate, and district levels. However, not all states are required to have all three levels; the structure depends on Population size.
To answer this, recall that smaller states may not have an intermediate level, while larger states follow a full three-tier system. The Constitution specifies a Population benchmark for this classification.
Eliminate options that seem too small or unusually large. The threshold is SET at a level that distinguishes between smaller and larger administrative units.
Think of it like deciding whether a company needs multiple management levels based on its size.
Thus, understanding how Population size influences administrative structure helps identify the correct threshold.
Option d – 20 lakh
In which year was the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 amended? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) 2005
b) 2012
c) 2008
d) 2010
Explanation: This question asks about the year in which a significant amendment was made to the Hindu Succession Act, improving gender equality in inheritance rights.
The original Act governed property rights among Hindus, but it had provisions that were considered unequal, especially regarding women’s rights. The amendment aimed to remove these inequalities.
To solve this, recall major legal reforms in the 2000s that focused on gender justice and equal rights. This amendment granted daughters equal rights in ancestral property.
Eliminate years that do not align with this wave of legal reforms. Focus on the period when gender equality became a major legislative priority.
An analogy would be updating outdated rules in a system to ensure fairness for all participants.
Thus, understanding legal reforms related to equality helps identify the correct year.
Option a – 2005
The 60th Constitutional Amendment raised the limit of profession tax from Rs. 250 per year to: ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) Rs. 5,000 per year
b) Rs. 7,000 per year
c) Rs. 2,500 per year
d) Rs. 1,000 per year
Explanation: This question focuses on a constitutional amendment that increased the maximum limit of profession tax.
Profession tax is a levy imposed by state governments on individuals earning Income through professions, trades, or employment. The Constitution sets an upper limit to ensure uniformity across states.
To answer this, recall amendments that addressed financial and taxation matters. The 60th Amendment specifically revised this limit to reflect economic changes.
Eliminate options that are either too low or excessively high compared to reasonable tax limits. The revised amount reflects a practical increase considering inflation and economic growth.
Think of it like revising a fee cap to keep it relevant with changing economic conditions.
Thus, understanding the purpose of the amendment helps identify the revised tax limit.
Option c – Rs. 2,500 per year
The Articles of the Indian Constitution that deal with Emergency provisions are: ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) 309 to 312
b) 352 to 360
c) 330 to 342
d) 343 to 351
Explanation: This question asks about the range of Articles in the Constitution that cover Emergency provisions.
The Constitution provides a detailed framework for dealing with extraordinary situations through different types of emergencies. These provisions define the powers of the central government and the impact on fundamental rights and federal structure.
To solve this, recall the grouping of Articles related to National Emergency, State Emergency, and Financial Emergency. These are placed together in a specific range for clarity.
Eliminate ranges that correspond to unrelated topics such as language or administrative services. Focus on the section dedicated to emergency powers.
Think of it like a specific chapter in a rulebook that outlines procedures for crisis situations.
Thus, understanding the structure of the Constitution helps identify the correct range of Articles.
Option b – 352 to 360
Which Articles of the Constitution cannot be suspended even during a proclamation of emergency due to war or external aggression? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) Articles 20 and 21
b) Articles 14 and 16
c) Articles 15 and 17
d) Articles 30 and 32
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying Fundamental Rights that remain protected even during an Emergency.
While many rights can be restricted during an Emergency, certain core rights are considered essential for the protection of life and personal liberty. These rights cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
To answer this, recall constitutional safeguards introduced to prevent misuse of emergency powers. These provisions ensure that basic human rights are preserved even in extreme situations.
Eliminate options that include rights which can be restricted during emergencies. Focus on those that are universally protected.
Think of it like a safety mechanism that remains active even during a system shutdown.
Thus, understanding constitutional safeguards helps identify the rights that remain unaffected during emergencies.
Option a – Articles 20 and 21
On which date in 1975 did Prime Minister Indira Gandhi advise President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed to declare an Emergency? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) 1st June
b) 22nd May
c) 25th June
d) 1st July
Explanation: This question asks about the specific date when the Emergency of 1975 was recommended by the Prime Minister.
The Emergency of 1975 is a significant event in Indian History, marked by the suspension of civil liberties and centralization of power. It was declared following political and legal developments.
To solve this, recall key historical events surrounding the Emergency period. The date is closely associated with major political decisions taken during that time.
Eliminate dates that do not align with the timeline of events leading to the Emergency. Focus on the specific day widely recognized in History.
An analogy would be identifying the exact date when a major turning point occurred in an organization’s History.
Thus, understanding the historical context helps determine the correct date.
Option c – 25th June
During a National Emergency, the term of the Lok Sabha may be extended by: ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) Three months at a time
b) Six months at a time
c) Two years at a time
d) One year at a time
Explanation: This question asks about the extension of the Lok Sabha’s tenure during a National Emergency. Normally, the Lok Sabha has a fixed term, but special provisions apply during extraordinary situations.
Under Emergency conditions, the Constitution allows Parliament to extend the term of the Lok Sabha to ensure continuity in governance. However, this extension is not indefinite and must follow specific limits to prevent misuse.
To solve this, recall that extensions are granted for a limited duration at a time and must be approved through legal procedures. The extension continues only as long as the Emergency remains in force, with safeguards in place.
Eliminate options that suggest excessively long or very short durations inconsistent with constitutional provisions.
Think of it like extending a contract during a crisis period, but only for a defined duration to maintain accountability.
Thus, understanding constitutional safeguards during emergencies helps identify the correct extension period.
Option d – One year at a time
When President’s Rule is proclaimed under Article 356, the order is initially valid for: ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) One month
b) Three months
c) Six months
d) Two months
Explanation: This question focuses on the initial duration for which President’s Rule remains in effect after being proclaimed.
President’s Rule is imposed when a state government cannot function according to constitutional provisions. However, this proclamation is subject to parliamentary approval and is valid only for a limited initial period.
To answer this, recall that the Constitution sets a specific timeframe within which the proclamation must be approved by Parliament, failing which it lapses.
Eliminate options that suggest durations either too short or longer than the constitutionally permitted initial period.
Think of it like a temporary administrative takeover that must be reviewed and approved within a fixed timeframe.
Thus, understanding the procedural safeguards for President’s Rule helps determine the initial validity period.
Option c – Six months
Which Article of the Constitution makes it the Union Government’s duty to safeguard states against external aggression and internal unrest? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) Article 353
b) Article 356
c) Article 355
d) Article 358
Explanation: This question asks about the constitutional provision that assigns responsibility to the Union Government to protect states from external and internal threats.
The Constitution establishes a federal system where both the Centre and states have defined roles. However, in matters of national security and stability, the Union has a duty to ensure protection and maintain order.
To solve this, recall Articles that define the relationship between the Centre and states, especially those dealing with responsibilities during crises.
Eliminate Articles that relate to other emergency provisions or administrative functions. Focus on the one specifically stating the Union’s duty toward states.
An analogy would be a central authority ensuring the safety of all its branches during emergencies.
Thus, understanding Centre-State responsibilities helps identify the relevant Article.
Option c – Article 355
In 1959, the Central Government of India used which Article to dismiss the government of Kerala?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 349
d) Article 360
Explanation: This question refers to a historical event where the Central Government dismissed a state government using a constitutional provision.
The dismissal of the Kerala government in 1959 is a notable example of the use of President’s Rule. It marked an early instance of central intervention in state governance under constitutional provisions.
To answer this, recall which Article allows the Centre to assume control of a state when its constitutional machinery fails.
Eliminate Articles that deal with national emergencies or financial matters. Focus on the one specifically related to state governance under exceptional circumstances.
Think of it like a higher authority stepping in to manage a unit that is unable to function properly.
Thus, linking historical events with constitutional provisions helps identify the correct Article.
Option b – Article 356
Which of the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is correct? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) The Committee has up to 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
b) The finance Minister serves as an ex-officio member of the Committee.
c) A member of the Committee holds office for one year.
d) Members from the Rajya Sabha continue in PAC even after their Rajya Sabha term ends.
Explanation: This question requires identifying a correct statement about the Public Accounts Committee, which plays a vital role in financial accountability.
The PAC examines audit reports and ensures that government expenditure is in accordance with Parliament’s decisions. It consists of members from both Houses and follows established procedures.
To solve this, evaluate each statement about its composition, tenure, and functions. Consider aspects like the number of members, inclusion of ministers, and duration of membership.
Eliminate statements that contradict known facts, such as incorrect composition or roles.
Think of the PAC as a financial watchdog ensuring that public Money is used properly.
Thus, understanding its structure and functioning helps identify the correct statement.
Option c – A member of the Committee holds office for one year.
Who has the authority to appoint the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee in Parliament?
a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
c) President of India
d) Leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha
Explanation: This question asks about the authority responsible for appointing the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee.
The PAC is an important parliamentary committee, and its chairperson plays a key role in guiding its functioning. The method of appointment reflects parliamentary traditions and procedures.
To answer this, recall how committee chairpersons are generally selected. Some are elected, while others are appointed by specific authorities within Parliament.
Eliminate options that do not align with parliamentary conventions. Focus on the authority responsible for overseeing committee appointments in the Lok Sabha.
Think of it like assigning a leader to a committee by a designated authority to ensure smooth functioning.
Thus, understanding parliamentary procedures helps identify who appoints the chairperson.
Option a – Speaker of the Lok Sabha
In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court hold that the President’s Rule imposed under Article 356 is open to judicial scrutiny? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
Explanation: This question focuses on a landmark Supreme Court judgment that clarified whether the imposition of President’s Rule can be reviewed by the Judiciary.
Initially, there was uncertainty about whether such decisions were beyond judicial review. Over time, the Supreme Court established that even constitutional actions are subject to scrutiny to prevent misuse.
To solve this, recall important cases related to federalism and misuse of Article 356. These judgments emphasized the role of the Judiciary in maintaining constitutional balance.
Eliminate cases that dealt with unrelated issues such as personal liberty or administrative law.
Think of it like a system where even top-level decisions can be reviewed to ensure fairness and legality.
Thus, understanding key judicial precedents helps identify the correct case.
Option b – S.R. Bommai & Others vs. Union of India
Regarding the Public Accounts Committee in the Indian Parliament, which of the following statements is/are accurate? 1. The committee was first established in 1921. 2. Initially, it was not a parliamentary committee functioning under the authority of the Speaker.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: This question evaluates statements about the origin and functioning of the Public Accounts Committee.
The PAC has a long History and plays a crucial role in ensuring financial accountability. Its structure and Evolution reflect changes in parliamentary practices over time.
To answer this, analyze each statement about its establishment and initial functioning. Consider whether it existed before independence and how its role has evolved.
Eliminate statements that contradict historical facts or misrepresent its development.
Think of it like tracing the origin of an institution and understanding how it became part of the current system.
Thus, knowledge of parliamentary history helps determine which statements are accurate.
Option c – Both 1 and 2
What is the minimum number of members required to constitute a quorum for the Committee on Petitions in the Rajya Sabha? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
Explanation: This question asks about the quorum required for the Committee on Petitions in the Rajya Sabha to function effectively.
A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present for a meeting to be valid. Parliamentary committees follow specific rules regarding quorum to ensure proper decision-making.
To solve this, recall general quorum principles used in parliamentary committees. The number is usually a fraction of total membership, ensuring sufficient participation.
Eliminate options that are either too small to ensure meaningful discussion or too large to be practical.
Think of it like requiring a minimum number of participants in a meeting before decisions can be officially made.
Thus, understanding quorum rules helps identify the correct number of members required.
Option b – Five
Which of the following powers belong exclusively to the Rajya Sabha? 1. Initiating a Money Bill 2. Declaring a subject in the State List as one of national importance 3. Impeaching the President of India ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: This question focuses on identifying powers that are unique to the Rajya Sabha and not shared with the Lok Sabha.
While most powers of Parliament are shared between both Houses, the Rajya Sabha has certain special powers due to its role as the Council of States. These powers are designed to protect federal interests.
To answer this, analyze each listed power and determine whether it is exclusive to the Rajya Sabha. Some powers, like introducing certain bills or constitutional procedures, may involve both Houses.
Eliminate options that are common to both Houses, such as impeachment processes or ordinary legislative functions.
Think of it like identifying special privileges given to one branch of an organization that others do not have.
Thus, understanding the unique role of the Rajya Sabha helps identify its exclusive powers.
Option b – 2 only
In India, the salaries and allowances of state officials can be reduced on which of the following grounds? ( Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers )
a) Proclamation of Financial Emergency
b) Internal disturbances
c) Failure of constitutional machinery in a State
d) Decline of public morality
Explanation: This question asks under what constitutional condition the salaries and allowances of state officials may be reduced. Normally, such financial entitlements are protected to ensure independence and stability.
However, the Constitution provides for exceptional situations where strict financial control becomes necessary. In such circumstances, certain safeguards may be relaxed to restore economic stability and manage resources effectively.
To solve this, recall the type of emergency that directly deals with financial stability. This provision allows the central authority to issue directions affecting financial matters across states.
Eliminate options related to political instability or law-and-order issues, as they do not directly justify financial adjustments of this nature.
Think of it like a company facing a financial crisis where cost-cutting measures, including salary reductions, are implemented to stabilize operations.
Thus, understanding constitutional provisions related to financial emergencies helps identify the correct ground.
Option a – Proclamation of Financial Emergency
Consider the following statements about constitutional amendments in India: 1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill needs the prior approval of the President before being introduced. 2. Once passed by Parliament, the President is bound to give assent to the Amendment Bill. 3. Such a Bill must be passed by both Houses with a special majority, and there is no provision for a joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: This question evaluates your understanding of the procedure for introducing and passing Constitutional Amendment Bills.
Such bills follow a special procedure distinct from ordinary legislation. They do not require prior approval from the President for introduction, but once passed, the President must give assent. Additionally, they require special majorities and cannot be passed through a joint sitting.
To answer this, examine each statement carefully. Consider the role of the President, the voting requirements in Parliament, and whether alternative procedures like joint sittings are allowed.
Eliminate statements that contradict constitutional provisions, especially those confusing amendment procedures with ordinary legislative processes.
Think of it like a high-level policy change requiring stricter approval processes compared to routine decisions.
Thus, understanding the constitutional framework governing amendment bills helps determine the correct statements.
Option a – 2 and 3 only
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution places a responsibility on the Union Government to safeguard States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution exempts States from the obligation of providing legal aid to individuals held under preventive detention. 3. Under the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confessions made to police officials are not admissible as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) All three
d) None
Explanation: This question asks you to evaluate multiple statements related to constitutional provisions and determine how many are correct.
Such Questions require careful analysis of each statement individually. Topics may include duties of the Union, legal safeguards, and provisions under specific laws.
To solve this, assess each statement based on constitutional principles. For example, the Union’s responsibility to protect states is clearly defined, while other statements may involve legal interpretations or specific laws.
Eliminate statements that contradict known constitutional provisions or legal practices. Pay attention to wording, as small differences can change the meaning significantly.
Think of it like verifying multiple claims in a report, where each must be checked independently before arriving at a final count.
Thus, a systematic evaluation of each statement helps determine the number of correct ones.
Option b – Only 2
We covered all the Parliamentary Standing Committees MCQ with Answers above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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