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Soil Resources Class 10 ICSE MCQ. We covered all the mcq on soil resources class 10 icse in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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Soil Resources Class 10 ICSE MCQ for Students
Quick Quiz
Which of the following soils of India is most suitable for cotton cultivation?
(a) Regur soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Red soil
Option a – Regur soil
Regur soil is most widespread in
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand
Option a – Maharashtra
Consider the following statements about the black soil of India. I. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet. II. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as well as phosphorus required for the growth of plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Option a – Only I
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Black soil is locally called ‘regur’,
(b) According to Krabs, the regur soil is essentially mature soil.
(c) Black soils are highly moisture retentive
(d) Black soil is found in the Himalayan region.
Option d – Black soil is found in the Himalayan region
Which soil needs little irrigation as it retains soil water?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) Laterite
(d) Alluvial
Option b – Black
Lava soils are found in
(a) Chhattisgarh Plains
(b) Trans-Sarayu Plains
(c) Malwa Plateau
(d) Shillong Plateau
Option c – Malwa Plateau
Which one of the following soil types of India is rendered infertile by the presence of excess iron?
(a) Desert sand
(b) Alluvial
(c) Podzolic
(d) Lateritic
Option d – Lateritic
Assertion (A) Black soils are suitable for cotton cultivation. Reason (R) They are rich in humus. Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Option c – A is true, but R is false
The water-holding capacity of different types of soils decreases in the order of
(a) clay > silt > sand
(b) clay > sand > silt
(c) sand > silt > clay
(d) silt > sand > clay
Option a – clay > silt > sand
Which one of the following soil particles has less than 0.002 mm diameter?
(a) Clay
(b) Silt
(c) Fine sand
(d) None of these
Option a – Clay
The micronutrient most deficient in Indian soils is
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) manganese
(d) zinc
Option d – zinc
Which one of the following soils is deposited by rivers?
(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Laterite soil
Option c – Alluvial soil
In India, the maximum area covered by the
(a) Lateritic soils
(b) Red soils
(c) Black soils
(d) Alluvial soils
Option d – Alluvial soils
Old Kachhari clay of Gangetic plain is called
(a) Bhabar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Khadar
(d) Khondalite
Option b – Bhangar
Which one of the following is the most productive soil in India?
(a) Red soil
(b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Calcareous soil
Option c – Alluvial soil
Which of the following types of soil has minimum water retention capacity?
(a) Alluvial sand soil
(b) Loamy sand soil
(c) Clayey loam soil
(d) Loamy soil
Option a – Alluvial sand soil
Khadar and Bhangar belong to which soil?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Laterite
(d) Red
Option a – Alluvial
The Zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to
(a) Red soil
(b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Older alluvium
Option c – Black soil
The term ‘Regur’ used to mean
(a) laterite soil
(b) deltaic soil
(c) red soil
(d) black cotton soil
Option d – black cotton soil
Which of the following is known as the “self-plowed” soil of the country?
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Lateritic soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Desert soils
Option c – Black soil
Soils are formed by which of the following factors?
(a) Climate
(b) Time
(c) Vegetation
(d) All of these
Option d – All of these
How many primary and secondary types of soil have been identified by the Council of Indian Agriculture and Research?
(a) 8 and 27
(b) 10 and 28
(c) 9 and 30
(d) 11 and 32
Option a – 8 and 27
Soil water available to plants is maximum in
(a) clay soil
(b) silty soil
(c) sandy soil
(d) loamy soil
Option a – clay soil
Regosol areas are characterized by
(a) Khadar
(b) Earth topsoil
(c) Bhangar
(d) Humus
Option b – Earth topsoil
Generally, the soil of the Northern Plains of India has been formed by
(a) degradation
(b) aggradation
(c) weathering in situ
(d) erosion
Option b – aggradation
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Amguri: Petroleum
(B) Lanjigarh: Bauxite
(C) Kamptee: Copper
(D) Bellary: Iron-ore
Option c – Kamptee: Copper
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Dalli-Rajhara: Iron-ore
(B) Rakha: Copper
(C) Nellore: Manganese
(D) Amarkantak: Bauxite
Option c – Nellore: Manganese
Find the correct sequence of Copper, Gold, Iron, and Coal in the following.
(A) Khetri, Kolar, Kudremukh, Jharia
(B) Kolar, Khetri, Kudremukh, Jharia
(C) Jharia, Kolar, Kudremukh, Khetri
(D) Khetri, Kudremukh, Kolar, Jharia
Option a – Khetri, Kolar, Kudremukh, Jharia
Which of the following state has a monopoly in Chromite production?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Odisha
Option d – Odisha
Which among the following do you connect with Metamorphous rock?
(A) Copper
(B) Garnet
(C) Manganese
(D) Pyrite
Option b – Garnet
Which is the correct sequence of following manganese producing States of India in terms of high to low production status?
(A) Rajasthan, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
Option c – Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka
Which of the following is not a metallic mineral?
(A) Haematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Gypsum
(D) Limonite
Option c – Gypsum
The main gypsum producing State of India is
(A) Bihar
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Rajasthan
Option d – Rajasthan
What is the product found in large quantities in the Churu-Bikaner-Sri Ganganagar belt, which is (i) a source of environmental pollution, (ii) used for raising soil fertility, and (iii) after value addition, is used in the health and building sector?
(A) Limestone
(B) Lignite
(C) Fullers Earth
(D) Gypsum
Option d – Gypsum
Which of the following adds nitrogen to the soil? 1. Excretion of urea by animals 2. Burning of coal by man 3. Death of vegetation Selects the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Option c – Only 1 and 3
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(A) Desert margin, liable to strong wind action
(B) Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(C) Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(D) None of the above
Option d – None of the above
Assertion (A): Earthworms are not good for agriculture. Reason (R): Earthworms break down the soil into fine particles and make it soft. Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Option d – (A) is false, but (R) is true
The formal development of Terraros sa takes place in that part of the land which consists of
(A) Limestone
(B) Cynite
(C) Granite
(D) Sandstone
Option a – Limestone
Soil leaching is a major problem
(A) In tropical rainforests
(B) In the African savanna
(C) In Mediterranean regions
(D) In Australian Dawns
Option a – In tropical rainforests
Capillaries are most effective in
(A) Clayey soil
(B) Silt soil
(C) Sandy soil
(D) Loamy soil
Option a – Clayey soil
Conservation of soil is the process by which
(A) Barren land is converted into fertile
(B) Soil is aerated
(C) Soil is eroded
(D) Soil is conserved from harm
Option d – Soil is conserved from harm
Halophytes grow well in
(A) Acidic soils
(B) Cold soils
(C) Soil containing calcium
(D) Saline soils
Option d – Saline soils
Radiation can cause
(a) Cardiac arrest
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Leukemia
(d) Diabetes
Option c – Leukemia
Which of the following radioactive material is largely associated with bone cancer?
(a) Radium-226
(b) Thorium-232
(c) Strontium-90
(d) lodine
Option c – Strontium-90
The Chornobyl accident is related to
(a) nuclear accident
(b) earthquake
(c) flood
(d) acid rain
Option a – nuclear accident
In the world’s worst nuclear accident in 1986, 31 people died, 129 others suffered acute radiation and many thousands are expected to die prematurely as a result of exposure to radiation released from the stricken plant. Name the site of this mishap.
(a) Three Mile Island, USA
(b) Chornobyl, Erstwhile Soviet, Union
(c) Bhopal, India
(d) Windscale, UK
Option b – Chornobyl, Erstwhile Soviet, Union
The government of India July 2011 gave its nod for accepting international regulations for the prevention of air pollution emanating from ships. In this regard, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. According to the regulations, limits have been set on sulfur oxide and nitrogen oxide emissions from ship exhausts. II. India is the first country to ratify the convention for the prevention of pollution from ships of the international maritime organization. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of these
Option a – Only I
With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation’ (IOR-ARC) consider the following statements. I. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. II. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Option d – Neither I nor II
Release of ionizing radiation into the environment as a result of human activity is known as
(a) marine pollution
(b) radioactive pollution
(c) air pollution
(d) None of the above
Option b – radioactive pollution
Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products mattresses and upholstery. Why there is some concern about their use? I. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment. II. They can accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Option c – Both I and II
The micro-organism use metabolism to remove pollutants such as oil spills in the water bodies known as
(a) Biomagnification
(b) Bioremediation
(c) Biomethanation
(d) Bioreduction
Option b – Bioremediation
Which one of the following processes takes place in lakes during eutrophication?
(a) Rapid destruction of algal growth.
(b) Excessive availability of dissolved oxygen.
(c) Loss of dissolved nutrients from the water.
(d) Excessive entry of nutrients into the water.
Option d – Excessive entry of nutrients into the water
There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawater of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon? I. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries. II. Run-off from the land during the monsoon. III. Upwelling in the seas. Select the correct answer using the code below.
(a) | Only
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, and III
Option d – I, II, and III
What would happen if the phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? I. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. II. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected. III. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) Only II
(c) Only II
(d) I, II, and III
Option a – I and II
The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? I. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected. II. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected. III. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected. IV. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I, II and III
(b) Only II
(c) I and III
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Option a – I, II and III
Which of the following is not destroyed by bacteria?
(a) Cow dung
(b) Leaves
(c) Food Ingredient
(d) Plastic
Option d – Plastic
One of the following is hazardous waste that is generated in the house. Name it.
(a) Paper
(b) Leftover foodstuff
(c) Old batteries
(d) Plastic bags
Option c – Old batteries
Name the metal contained in broken fluorescent bulbs, tube lights, and dead batteries which gets transported with common municipal solid waste and can be easily swallowed, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin and can damage the kidneys and cause a nervous system.
(a) Copper
(b) Cadmium
(c) Mercury
(d) Arsenic
Option c – Mercury
Incinerators are used for which of the following?
(a) Burning wastes
(b) Putting waste into them
(c) For cutting green trees
(d) For making fertilizers
Option a – Burning wastes
Proper disposal of hazardous toxic waste is essential as exposure to it can cause serious problems to health. Which is potentially the safest means of disposing of the most toxic wastes: organic solvents, chlorinated hydrocarbons, and oil-base compounds (including PCBs and dioxins)?
(a) Municipal incineration
(b) Industrial high-temperature incineration
(c) Landfills
(d) None of the above
Option b – Industrial high-temperature incineration
The municipal solid waste generated in India is about 40% organic matter. Composting is the best method of disposal of organic solid waste. Where was the country’s first aerobic composting plant set up in 1992?
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Option b – Mumbai
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns, and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Option c – The Rules provide exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities
The process of vitrification used for disposing of radioactive waste refers to which of the following processes?
(a) Process of concentrating the waste into a small volume so that it can be disposed of easily.
(b) Transformation of the waste in glass to store it for long period.
(c) Storing the radioactive waste in a solid lattice prevents it from spreading.
(d) Disposing of waste in a sealed steel container along with an inert gas.
Option c – Storing the radioactive waste in a solid lattice prevents it from spreading
Consider the following statements. I. Nuclear fuel is made from naturally occurring radioactive materials, such as uranium, found in rocks. II. Nuclear fuel produces 50% fewer greenhouse gases than any non-renewable source of energy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Option a – Only I
Which of the following statements about radioactive pollution is correct? I. It causes hereditary changes in the animal. II. It causes disbalance among different minerals in the soil. III. It hinders blood circulation. IV. It causes carcinogenesis. Select the correct answer using the code given below. Codes
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) I, III, and IV
(d) II, III, and IV
Option c – I, III, and IV
Which megacity of India generates the largest solid waste per capacity annually?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Option c – Delhi
Polythene bags cannot be destroyed because they are made of ( soil and mineral resources class 10 icse mcq )
(a) Unbreakable molecules
(b) Inorganic compounds
(c) Polymers
(d) Proteins
Option c – Polymers
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