mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers. We covered all the mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
Install our MCQTUBE Android App from the Google Play Store and prepare for any competitive government exams for free.
mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers for Students
Which Disease can be diagnosed using the Widal test?
A) Diphtheria
B) Pneumonia
C) Typhoid
D) Influenza
Explanation: The question asks about a diagnostic test used to identify specific systemic infections.
The Widal test detects agglutinating antibodies in a patient’s serum in response to bacterial infections. It is commonly linked with certain enteric fevers. Antibodies form when the immune system encounters specific bacterial antigens.
The test mixes patient serum with bacterial antigens; visible clumping indicates antibody presence. This helps differentiate bacterial infections from viral or other non-bacterial fevers. Clinicians use symptom evaluation, fever pattern, and laboratory data to support diagnosis, ruling out unrelated conditions.
An analogy: antibodies act like keys fitting bacterial antigen “locks,” confirming infection presence.
Overall, this test highlights immune responses to identify systemic bacterial infections accurately.
Explanation: This question asks which Disease arises when essential Minerals are insufficient for proper body function.
Minerals such as calcium, iodine, iron, and phosphorus are crucial for bone Health, enzyme activity, hormone synthesis, and metabolic processes. Deficiency disrupts normal physiology and produces recognizable clinical symptoms.
By observing symptoms, dietary History, and lab results, clinicians match deficiencies to their effects. Different mineral shortages cause distinct disorders: some affect bones, others metabolism or hormone production. This distinction helps eliminate conditions caused by vitamin or protein deficits.
Think of Minerals as vital building blocks; missing one weakens the structure, causing visible functional or structural problems.
In summary, mineral deficiencies produce diseases with characteristic signs linked to the missing nutrient.
Option d – Goitre
Which infectious Disease is the result of a bacterial infection?
A) Malaria
B) Dengue
C) Influenza
D) Cholera
Explanation: The question asks which illness is caused by bacteria rather than viruses or other pathogens.
Bacterial infections involve single-celled Organisms that reproduce and release toxins. Symptoms typically include fever, inflammation, or organ-specific effects. Knowing the pathogen type helps distinguish bacterial from viral or parasitic diseases.
Laboratory tests, Culture growth, and clinical signs identify bacterial infections. By comparing how bacteria affect the body versus viruses, clinicians can rule out diseases that do not produce the characteristic bacterial symptoms.
An analogy: bacteria act like invaders producing damage inside a city, while viruses hijack cells without visible invasion initially.
Overall, bacterial infections exhibit specific clinical patterns and respond to treatments targeting bacterial processes.
Option d – Cholera
Analgesics are medications mainly used for
A) Supporting normal body functions
B) Correcting vitamin or nutrient deficiencies
C) Destroying or suppressing harmful microbes
D) Relieving pain and reducing fever
Explanation: The question asks the primary role of analgesics in medical care.
Analgesics are drugs that reduce pain and, in many cases, lower fever. They work by interfering with pain signaling pathways or reducing inflammation that triggers pain perception. They are not meant to replace nutrients, fight infections, or support normal metabolic functions.
Clinicians prescribe analgesics for pain relief, inflammation management, and symptom control. Understanding their mechanism—blocking certain chemical mediators—distinguishes them from antibiotics, vitamins, or other therapeutic agents.
Analogy: analgesics act like dimmers for a pain “Light,” lowering the sensation without fixing the underlying cause.
In short, analgesics alleviate pain and related symptoms, forming a core component of symptomatic treatment.
Option d – Relieving pain and reducing fever
Stunted growth with discolored hair is most likely due to
A) Lack of lipids
B) Lack of glucose
C) Vitamin A deficiency
D) Protein deficiency
Explanation: The question describes physical symptoms associated with nutrient deficiency affecting growth and hair pigmentation.
Protein is essential for growth, tissue repair, and hair development. Inadequate intake disrupts these processes, leading to stunted growth and hair changes. Vitamins and carbohydrates influence other body functions but do not directly cause these specific signs.
By assessing diet, physical signs, and biochemical tests, healthcare providers can differentiate protein-related conditions from other deficiencies.
Analogy: protein is like construction material for the body; insufficient supply halts proper building, causing noticeable defects.
In summary, certain deficiencies cause distinctive physical traits like stunted growth and hair discoloration, reflecting the missing nutrient’s role.
Option d – Protein deficiency
Epilepsy primarily impacts which part of the human body?
A) Teeth and bones
B) Brain cells
C) Skin
D) Muscles
Explanation: The question concerns which organ system is mainly affected in epilepsy.
Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by abnormal electrical activity in the brain, leading to seizures. It does not affect muscles, bones, or skin directly but influences brain signaling. Identifying the organ involved helps in treatment and management.
Diagnostic methods include EEG to detect abnormal brain activity and observation of seizure patterns. Understanding the neurological basis differentiates it from metabolic or musculoskeletal disorders.
Analogy: the brain is like a control center; epilepsy causes temporary short circuits disrupting normal functions.
Overall, epilepsy affects brain activity, resulting in seizures and related neurological symptoms.
Explanation: The question asks about the classification of COVID-19 based on its origin and transmission.
Diseases are categorized by causative agents and how they spread. COVID-19 is caused by a virus that jumps from animals to humans, classifying it as a zoonotic Disease. Understanding transmission routes and pathogen type is critical for public Health measures.
Epidemiologists track the Disease source, patterns, and risk factors to confirm classification. This distinction helps separate foodborne, waterborne, or nutrient-related diseases from zoonotic infections.
Analogy: zoonotic diseases are like travelers crossing species boundaries, affecting humans after originating in animals.
In summary, disease classification relies on origin, transmission, and pathogen characteristics, guiding prevention strategies.
Option d – Zoonotic disease
Unusual or prolonged bleeding from wounds is commonly linked to a shortage of
A) Vitamin E
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin A
Explanation: The question focuses on nutrient deficiencies that affect blood clotting and wound healing.
Certain vitamins are essential for coagulation. A deficiency interferes with clotting factor production, leading to prolonged bleeding. Not all vitamins impact clotting; some support vision, energy metabolism, or general Health.
By evaluating symptoms, dietary History, and lab tests, clinicians can pinpoint the nutrient affecting coagulation and eliminate unrelated deficiencies.
Analogy: clotting factors are like repair crews; without them, minor damage remains unpatched.
A person with a very low red blood cell count is diagnosed with
A) Scurvy
B) Anaemia
C) Jaundice
D) Goitre
Explanation: The question highlights a condition associated with low red blood cell (RBC) levels in the blood.
Red blood cells Transport oxygen; a deficiency leads to fatigue, pallor, and weakness. Causes include nutrient deficiencies, chronic diseases, or genetic conditions. Identifying the underlying cause is essential for proper management.
Laboratory tests, clinical observation, and dietary assessment help distinguish this condition from other disorders affecting different organs or functions.
Analogy: RBCs are delivery trucks; too few trucks mean oxygen cannot reach body tissues efficiently.
Overall, reduced RBC levels manifest as systemic fatigue and other clinical symptoms, indicating impaired oxygen Transport.
Option b – Anaemia
Persistent constipation can indicate a lack of
A) Protein
B) Vitamin
C) Dietary fibre
D) Calcium
Explanation: The question examines dietary factors linked to bowel movement issues.
Dietary fiber is essential for proper Digestion and stool formation. Inadequate intake slows intestinal transit, causing constipation. Proteins, vitamins, or Minerals influence Health but do not directly regulate bowel movement frequency.
Clinicians assess diet, Fluid intake, and gastrointestinal Health to determine fiber deficiency as the underlying cause. Correcting fiber intake usually alleviates symptoms.
Analogy: fiber acts like a broom moving waste through the digestive tract; without it, waste accumulates.
In short, constipation often signals insufficient dietary fiber, affecting bowel regularity and digestive efficiency.
Option c – Dietary fibre
If someone tests positive for malaria after a mosquito bite, it means
A) Their diet was not balanced
B) The mosquito carried the Plasmodium parasite
C) The mosquito itself had malaria
D) They missed childhood vaccinations
Explanation: The question asks about the reason for contracting malaria following a mosquito bite.
Malaria is caused by the Plasmodium parasite, which is transmitted through bites from infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. The parasite enters the bloodstream and infects red blood cells, causing fever and other symptoms. Understanding the Vector and parasite lifecycle is key to linking infection to mosquito bites rather than diet or vaccination History.
Analogy: The mosquito acts as a delivery vehicle carrying the parasite into the bloodstream, similar to a courier delivering a package to the wrong address.
In summary, malaria infection is closely tied to the presence of the Plasmodium parasite transmitted by a specific mosquito Vector.
Option b – The mosquito carried the Plasmodium parasite
A child who avoids milk and eats little else, losing baby teeth without replacement, should be given
A) Calcium supplements
B) Carbohydrate-rich foods
C) Vitamin B complex
D) Vitamin C
Explanation: The question focuses on nutrients necessary for healthy teeth and bone development in children.
Calcium is vital for forming and maintaining strong bones and teeth. Deficiency in calcium leads to weak skeletal structures, delayed tooth replacement, and stunted growth. Other nutrients like carbohydrates or vitamins support energy or metabolism but do not directly prevent dental issues caused by calcium shortage.
Analogy: Calcium is like the cement in a building; without it, the structure is weak and prone to collapse.
Overall, adequate calcium intake is essential for skeletal and dental Health, especially in growing children.
Option a – Calcium supplements
Which virus causes AIDS?
A) Influenza virus
B) Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
C) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
Explanation: The question asks about the viral cause of a disease that weakens the immune system.
AIDS results from infection by a virus that targets and destroys key immune cells, reducing the body’s ability to fight infections. Understanding the specific virus type distinguishes it from viruses causing respiratory or skin infections. Transmission occurs primarily through body fluids, not casual contact.
Analogy: The virus acts like a saboteur disabling the immune system’s defense forces, leaving the body vulnerable to other infections.
In summary, AIDS is caused by a virus that specifically impairs immune function, leading to increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections.
Option c – Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
Severe malnutrition from inadequate Food and energy intake is called
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Wasting
C) Marasmus
D) Dementia
Explanation: The question deals with a type of malnutrition caused by insufficient calories and protein.
Malnutrition occurs when energy intake is too low to meet the body’s needs. Prolonged deficiency affects growth, organ function, and immune response. Clinicians assess body weight, height, and dietary intake to determine severity. Other forms of malnutrition might involve single nutrient deficiencies rather than overall energy shortage.
Analogy: Malnutrition is like running a car without enough fuel; all systems slow down or fail.
In short, severe energy and protein deficiency leads to systemic malnutrition with characteristic physical and physiological effects.
Option c – Marasmus
A deficiency of iodine leads to low production of which hormone?
A) Thyroid
B) Thrombopoietin
C) Adrenaline
D) Melatonin
Explanation: The question highlights the link between a trace mineral and hormone production.
Iodine is required by the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism, growth, and development. Lack of iodine disrupts hormone production, causing swelling, growth delays, and metabolic issues. Deficiencies in other nutrients do not produce these specific hormonal effects.
Analogy: Iodine acts as a key ingredient in hormone “recipes”; missing it prevents proper synthesis.
Explanation: The question asks to identify a condition not classified as cancer.
Cancer arises from uncontrolled cell growth and can be categorized as carcinoma, sarcoma, or lymphoma. Some diseases may affect organs or tissues but do not involve malignant cell proliferation, distinguishing them from cancer types. Recognition of pathology and cellular behavior is essential for classification.
Analogy: Cancer is like weeds overtaking a garden, whereas unrelated diseases do not grow uncontrollably.
In short, cancer classification depends on cell type and tissue origin, with non-cancerous conditions showing different pathology.
Option b – Glaucoma
Which of these diseases is not inherited genetically?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Down syndrome
C) Malaria
D) Muscular dystrophy
Explanation: The question focuses on distinguishing genetic from non-genetic diseases.
Genetic diseases are passed through inherited mutations in DNA or chromosomes. Non-genetic diseases arise from infections, environmental factors, or lifestyle. Understanding etiology helps identify which conditions are inherited versus acquired.
Analogy: Genetic diseases are like traits encoded in a family blueprint, while non-genetic diseases develop due to external factors.
Overall, distinguishing inherited versus acquired diseases requires understanding the source of causation and familial patterns.
Option c – Malaria
In which disorder does the immune system attack the intrinsic factor or the stomach cells that produce it?
A) Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome
B) Hepatic cirrhosis
C) Pernicious anaemia
D) Hartnup disorder
Explanation: The question asks about an autoimmune condition affecting nutrient absorption.
Some disorders arise when the immune system targets essential proteins or cells in the stomach, reducing intrinsic factor production. This factor is needed to absorb vitamin B12, and deficiency leads to specific anemias. Recognizing autoimmune mechanisms helps differentiate from metabolic, infectious, or dietary conditions.
Analogy: The body mistakenly attacks its own “factory,” preventing production of critical compounds.
In summary, autoimmune reactions against stomach components can impair nutrient absorption, causing systemic effects.
Option c – Pernicious anaemia
Severe mental and physical delay during pregnancy due to iodine and thyroid hormone deficiency is known as
A) Preeclampsia
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Cretinism
D) Syphilis
Explanation: The question deals with developmental disorders caused by nutrient deficiency in utero.
Iodine and thyroid hormones are essential for brain development and growth. Deficiency during pregnancy disrupts fetal nervous system formation, resulting in delayed cognitive and physical milestones. Other nutrient deficiencies produce different symptoms, making it crucial to link thyroid hormone shortage with developmental delays.
Analogy: Thyroid hormones act like growth supervisors in fetal development; without them, construction is incomplete.
Overall, iodine and thyroid hormone deficiency during pregnancy can cause developmental disorders with lifelong impacts.
Option c – Cretinism
Which sign is not typical of iron-deficiency anemia (IDA)?
A) Pale conjunctiva of the eyes
B) Blindness
C) Soft palate
D) General pallor
Explanation: The question asks to identify a symptom that does not align with low iron levels.
Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis. Deficiency leads to pallor, fatigue, and reduced oxygen Transport. Other unrelated symptoms may be caused by different deficiencies or diseases, allowing differentiation from IDA. Clinical evaluation and lab tests confirm the condition.
Analogy: Hemoglobin acts like oxygen-carrying trucks; too few trucks result in systemic shortages, showing specific signs like paleness.
In summary, iron-deficiency anemia produces predictable symptoms, and atypical signs indicate other Health issues.
Option b – Blindness
What is the most common early symptom of infant jaundice, usually between days two and four?
A) Cracks and irritation at the mouth corners
B) Puffy or swollen ankles
C) Yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes
D) Gum swelling and bleeding
Explanation: The question asks about the initial observable sign of jaundice in newborns.
Jaundice occurs when bilirubin accumulates in the blood, causing yellowing of the skin and eyes. This happens due to immature liver function in newborns, which is less efficient at processing bilirubin. Early recognition helps prevent complications. Other symptoms like swelling or irritation are not typical of this condition.
Analogy: Bilirubin buildup is like excess paint coating a surface, gradually changing its color.
Overall, jaundice presents visibly in the skin and eyes, providing a key early clinical indicator in infants.
Option c – Yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes
Malabsorption leading to diarrhoea, weight loss, and malnutrition from a non-functional small intestine is called
A) Down syndrome
B) Short bowel syndrome
C) Hypoglycaemia
D) Hyperglycaemia
Explanation: The question addresses a gastrointestinal condition affecting nutrient absorption.
Malabsorption syndromes result from structural or functional impairment of the small intestine. When the intestine cannot absorb nutrients properly, patients experience diarrhea, weight loss, and nutrient deficiencies. Laboratory tests, imaging, and patient History help identify the underlying cause. Other metabolic or infectious conditions may produce some overlapping symptoms but differ in origin.
Analogy: A malfunctioning small intestine is like a sieve with holes too large, allowing essential items to escape.
In summary, non-functional intestines prevent proper nutrient uptake, causing systemic malnutrition and gastrointestinal symptoms.
Option b – Short bowel syndrome
Which of the following illnesses is not spread through droplets from an infected person’s mouth or nose?
A) Pneumonia
B) COVID-19
C) HIV-AIDS
D) Tuberculosis
Explanation: The question tests knowledge of disease transmission mechanisms.
Some diseases spread via respiratory droplets during coughing, sneezing, or talking. Others, like bloodborne infections, have different transmission routes. Identifying the mode of transmission helps in infection control and distinguishing diseases that do not follow airborne or droplet pathways.
Analogy: Droplet transmission is like passing a note through the air; only those nearby can receive it.
Overall, understanding how infections spread is crucial to prevent and control contagious illnesses effectively.
Option c – HIV-AIDS
Why are antibiotics ineffective against viruses while vaccines can protect?
A) Antibiotics break only RNA, whereas viruses contain DNA.
B) Antibiotics are carbohydrates, while vaccines are proteins that can kill a virus.
C) Only a vaccine destroys the genetic material of a virus.
D) Viruses lack the metabolic pathways targeted by antibiotics, but a vaccine triggers immune defense.
Explanation: The question asks about the difference between antiviral protection and antibiotic action.
Antibiotics target bacterial metabolic pathways, cell walls, or replication mechanisms that viruses lack. Viruses rely on host cells to reproduce, making antibiotics ineffective. Vaccines prime the immune system to recognize and respond to viruses before infection occurs. This distinction is key in disease prevention and treatment strategies.
Analogy: Antibiotics are like locks for bacterial doors, but viruses use the host’s house, bypassing the locks. Vaccines train the guard dogs beforehand.
In short, antibiotics target bacteria-specific processes, while vaccines prepare the immune system to recognize viral pathogens.
Option d – Viruses lack the metabolic pathways targeted by antibiotics, but a vaccine triggers immune defense.
“Sleeping sickness” is caused by
A) Leishmania
B) Trypanosoma
C) Paramecium
D) Plasmodium
Explanation: The question asks for the causative organism of a Vector-borne disease.
Sleeping sickness, or African trypanosomiasis, is caused by a protozoan parasite transmitted by the tsetse fly. The parasite infects the bloodstream and eventually the nervous system, causing sleep disturbances and neurological symptoms. Other Organisms like Plasmodium or Leishmania produce different diseases with distinct transmission routes.
Analogy: The parasite is like an intruder using a taxi (tsetse fly) to enter the body undetected.
Overall, sleeping sickness is a Vector-borne protozoan infection with systemic and neurological effects.
Option b – Trypanosoma
A persistent infection confined to a specific region without outside sources is called
A) Pandemic
B) Endemic
C) Outbreak
D) Epidemic
Explanation: The question concerns epidemiological terms describing disease prevalence.
An endemic disease is consistently present in a defined geographic area, maintained by local transmission without new external introduction. This contrasts with outbreaks or pandemics, which involve sudden increases or wide geographic spread. Identifying the pattern aids public Health planning and control measures.
Analogy: Endemic diseases are like a steady flame in a specific room, always burning but contained.
Overall, local persistence defines endemic conditions, distinguishing them from sudden or widespread epidemics.
Option b – Endemic
Viral mutations occur because of changes in their
A) Cell size
B) Genetic material
C) Colour
D) Shape
Explanation: The question asks why viruses undergo genetic changes over time.
Viruses replicate using their genetic material, and errors during replication lead to mutations. Mutations can affect transmissibility, virulence, or immune escape. They do not involve changes in size, color, or shape directly but in nucleotide sequences. Understanding viral Genetics helps explain evolving strains and vaccine design challenges.
Analogy: Viral genetic material is like a manuscript; typos in replication change the content and meaning.
In summary, mutations in viral genetic material drive Evolution and variation in virus behavior.
Option b – Genetic material
Lack of iron results in
A) Anaemia
B) Scurvy
C) Rickets
D) Cholera
Explanation: The question asks about the physiological consequences of iron deficiency.
Iron is crucial for hemoglobin production in red blood cells. Deficiency reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, causing fatigue, pallor, and systemic effects. Other nutrient deficiencies affect different systems but do not directly impair hemoglobin synthesis. Laboratory tests and clinical signs confirm iron deficiency.
Analogy: Iron is like the cargo in delivery trucks; without enough, oxygen cannot reach tissues efficiently.
Overall, insufficient iron disrupts red blood cell production, leading to characteristic clinical manifestations.
Option a – Anaemia
Kwashiorkor, a malnutrition disorder, is due to deficiency of
Explanation: The question concerns a specific type of malnutrition.
Kwashiorkor results from severe protein deficiency despite adequate calorie intake. It leads to edema, stunted growth, and fatty liver. Other nutrient deficiencies or total caloric deficits cause different symptoms. Clinical evaluation, dietary History, and physical signs help differentiate Kwashiorkor from other malnutrition types.
Analogy: Protein is like bricks in a building; missing them weakens structure, leading to visible sagging and collapse.
Overall, Kwashiorkor arises from protein shortage, producing distinct systemic and physical effects.
Option d – Proteins
Regarding vaccination as a preventive measure, which statements are accurate? 1. It prevents the pathogen’s entry. 2. It stimulates antibody formation. 3. It destroys the pathogen inside the body.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The question asks about the mechanism and purpose of vaccination.
Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies, preparing it for future exposure. They do not typically prevent pathogen entry but enable rapid immune response upon infection. Vaccination helps the body recognize and neutralize pathogens effectively, reducing disease severity and spread. Understanding these mechanisms distinguishes vaccination from treatments that directly destroy pathogens.
Analogy: Vaccines are like practice drills for soldiers; they prepare the defense without engaging the enemy initially.
Overall, vaccines prime immunity and enhance antibody formation, ensuring effective protection against infections.
Option b – 2 only
Dengue fever is triggered by a mosquito-borne virus belonging to
A) Flavi-ribovirus
B) Adenovirus
C) Vaccinia virus
D) Nipah virus
Explanation: Dengue fever is caused by a virus transmitted through Aedes mosquitoes. The virus belongs to a family of RNA viruses that specifically use mosquitoes as Vectors for human infection. Knowing the viral family helps in understanding its replication, transmission, and control strategies. Unlike other viruses transmitted via direct contact, Vector control is crucial in preventing dengue outbreaks. Overall, dengue virus requires mosquito Vectors for transmission and is part of a specific RNA virus family.
Explanation: Some diseases spread through Vectors like mosquitoes, ticks, or flies, while others transmit directly between humans. Identifying whether a disease has a Vector helps in planning preventive measures, such as insect control or vaccination campaigns. Diseases without Vectors rely on direct contact, airborne droplets, or other non-Vector pathways for infection. Overall, understanding Vector involvement distinguishes direct transmission from Vector-borne infections.
Option a – AIDS
Consider these facts about probiotics: 1. They contain bacteria and yeast. 2. They are present in foods but not naturally in the gut. 3. They help digest milk sugars. Which are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 3
Explanation: Probiotics are live microorganisms, including bacteria and yeast, that provide Health benefits, particularly aiding Digestion. They naturally reside in the gut microbiome and are also found in fermented foods. Their role in digesting lactose and supporting gut Health is well-established. Misconceptions about their absence from the gut or their composition may arise, but they are integral to a balanced intestinal Environment. Overall, probiotics contain beneficial microbes that assist in Digestion and maintain gut flora.
Explanation: Viruses are non-living entities composed of nucleic Acids and protein coats. They cannot generate their own energy or synthesize proteins independently and rely entirely on host cells for replication. Understanding viral Biology is crucial for developing antiviral strategies and vaccines. Viruses differ fundamentally from free-Living Organisms due to their dependence on host machinery. Overall, viruses consist of genetic material and protein but lack independent metabolic functions.
Covaxin, India’s COVID-19 vaccine, is classified as
A) Live attenuated virus vaccine
B) Inactivated whole-virus vaccine
C) Messenger RNA vaccine
D) Protein subunit vaccine
Explanation: Covaxin is an inactivated whole-virus vaccine, meaning the virus has been killed but retains the ability to trigger an immune response. Different vaccines use live attenuated viruses, mRNA, or protein subunits to achieve immunity. Knowing the type of vaccine helps understand its safety profile, mechanism, and storage requirements. Overall, Covaxin uses inactivated virus Technology to safely stimulate immunity against COVID-19.
Option b – Inactivated whole-virus vaccine
Who introduced oral rehydration therapy (ORT)?
A) Anandi Joshi
B) Bidhan Chandra Roy
C) Dilip Mahalanabis
D) Siddhartha Mukherjee
Explanation: Oral rehydration therapy is a simple solution of Salts and sugars used to treat dehydration caused by diarrheal diseases. It works by replenishing lost fluids and electrolytes efficiently. The therapy was introduced as a public health measure to reduce mortality in areas with high diarrheal disease incidence. Understanding its origin highlights the importance of simple yet life-saving interventions. Overall, ORT restores Fluid and electrolyte balance in dehydration cases.
Option c – Dilip Mahalanabis
“Athlete’s foot” is a skin disease caused by a
A) Fungus
B) Virus
C) Bacterium
D) Alga
Explanation: Athlete’s foot is a fungal infection affecting the skin, particularly between the toes. Fungi thrive in warm, moist environments, causing redness, itching, and scaling. Differentiating fungal infections from bacterial or viral skin conditions is crucial for appropriate treatment. Antifungal medications and hygiene measures help resolve the infection. Overall, athlete’s foot is caused by a fungus and requires targeted antifungal care.
Option a – Fungus
Which disease currently lacks an effective vaccine?
A) Typhoid
B) Chickenpox
C) Viral Hepatitis C
D) Human Papilloma Virus
Explanation: Some viral infections, despite ongoing research, have no reliable vaccine due to high mutation rates, genetic variability, or complex immune evasion. Knowing which diseases lack vaccines emphasizes the need for alternative preventive strategies and ongoing research. Public health measures often rely on hygiene, vector control, or symptomatic treatment when vaccines are unavailable. Overall, certain infectious diseases remain without vaccines because of biological challenges in immune protection.
Option c – Viral Hepatitis C
Which condition is specifically associated with asbestos exposure?
A) Liver fibrosis
B) Lung fibrosis
C) Mesothelioma
D) Pleural effusion
Explanation: Asbestos fibers, when inhaled over long periods, can cause mesothelioma, a cancer affecting the lung lining or other organs. This occupational or environmental hazard is uniquely linked to asbestos exposure, differentiating it from general lung fibrosis caused by other toxins. Early recognition and preventive measures are critical in at-risk populations. Overall, mesothelioma is strongly associated with asbestos inhalation.
Option b – Lung fibrosis
Which genetic disorder stems from an abnormal number of sex chromosomes?
A) Down’s syndrome
B) Turner’s syndrome
C) Haemophilia
D) Alkaptonuria
Explanation: Disorders caused by abnormal numbers of sex chromosomes result in developmental and physiological differences. Conditions arise when there are extra or missing X or Y chromosomes, affecting growth, reproductive capacity, and secondary sexual characteristics. Other genetic disorders may involve single-gene mutations or autosomal anomalies. Cytogenetic analysis helps identify chromosomal abnormalities. Overall, sex chromosome abnormalities produce distinctive syndromes affecting development and physiology.
Option b – Turner’s syndrome
The highly contagious disease smallpox was caused by
A) Adenovirus
B) Variola virus
C) Aichi virus
D) Coxsackie virus
Explanation: Smallpox is a viral infection that spreads easily through respiratory droplets and close contact. It produces characteristic pustules and can be fatal if untreated. Understanding the causative agent is important for historical context and vaccination strategies, as smallpox is the first disease successfully eradicated through global immunization efforts. Overall, smallpox illustrates how vaccination can eliminate a deadly viral infection.
Option b – Variola virus
Which disease is produced by a bacterial infection?
A) AIDS
B) Dengue fever
C) Typhoid fever
D) COVID-19
Explanation: Bacterial infections are caused by microorganisms that can multiply independently and release toxins, leading to disease symptoms. Differentiating bacterial from viral infections is important because bacterial illnesses respond to antibiotics, whereas viral infections require other preventive or therapeutic approaches. Correct identification ensures effective treatment and reduces complications. Overall, bacterial diseases result from pathogens that can be targeted with specific drugs.
Option c – Typhoid fever
Tooth decay from Streptococcus mutans occurs because the bacteria form a slime layer from
Explanation: Streptococcus mutans bacteria metabolize dietary sugars to produce a sticky biofilm on tooth surfaces. This slime layer traps Acids that demineralize enamel, causing cavities. Oral hygiene and reduced sugar intake help prevent decay. Understanding the process highlights how bacteria interact with diet to affect dental health. Overall, tooth decay results from bacterial biofilms formed from dietary sugars.
Option a – Sugar
Deficiency of vitamin D in humans leads to
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Beriberi
D) Pneumonia
Explanation: Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption and bone health. Its deficiency impairs mineralization, leading to weak bones, skeletal deformities, and growth issues in children or osteomalacia in adults. Sunlight exposure and diet are primary sources. Recognizing the deficiency allows preventive measures such as supplementation or fortified foods. Overall, inadequate vitamin D disrupts bone formation and structural integrity.
Option a – Rickets
Which group of illnesses represents polygenic disorders?
A) Sickle cell anaemia, Haemophilia, Hypertension
B) Hypertension, Coronary heart disease, Diabetes
C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy, Colour blindness, Diabetes
Explanation: Polygenic disorders arise from the combined effect of multiple genes and are often influenced by environmental factors. Conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and coronary heart disease are examples, showing complex inheritance patterns. Understanding these disorders helps in risk assessment, preventive strategies, and personalized medicine. Overall, polygenic disorders involve multiple genes contributing to disease susceptibility and severity.
Option b – Hypertension, Coronary heart disease, Diabetes
Which virus is responsible for causing COVID-19?
A) SARS-CoV-2
B) SARS-CoV-19
C) SARS-CoV-20
D) SARS-CoV-1
Explanation: COVID-19 is caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus, a coronavirus that infects human respiratory cells. The virus contains RNA as genetic material and relies on host cells to replicate. Identifying the causative virus is critical for diagnostics, treatment, and vaccine development. Overall, SARS-CoV-2 is the etiological agent responsible for COVID-19.
Option a – SARS-CoV-2
Which type of Biotechnology is utilized to create Pharmaceutical products such as insulin, vaccines, and antibiotics?
Explanation: Red Biotechnology focuses on medical and Pharmaceutical applications. It involves using Living Organisms to produce therapeutic products like insulin, vaccines, and antibiotics. This differs from white Biotechnology (industrial) and green Biotechnology (agricultural). Understanding the classification helps in appreciating its medical relevance and practical applications. Overall, Pharmaceutical production using Biotechnology falls under red Biotechnology.
Option b – Red Biotechnology
Who is credited with the initial discovery of the antibiotic penicillin?
A) Francis Crick
B) Maurice Wilkins
C) Charles Darwin
D) Alexander Fleming
Explanation: Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming when he observed that mold inhibited bacterial growth. This discovery led to the development of antibiotics, revolutionizing treatment of bacterial infections. It highlights the significance of observation and experimentation in microbiology and medicine. Overall, Fleming’s discovery marked a turning point in combating bacterial diseases.
Option d – Alexander Fleming
The transmission of malaria parasites occurs through which vector?
A) Male Anopheles mosquito
B) Male Culex mosquito
C) Female Anopheles mosquito
D) Female Culex mosquito
Explanation: Malaria is transmitted via bites from infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. The parasites (Plasmodium species) enter the human bloodstream during feeding and infect red blood cells. Male mosquitoes do not bite and cannot transmit the disease. Understanding vector Biology is essential for disease prevention through mosquito control and protective measures. Overall, malaria depends on the female Anopheles mosquito for transmission.
Option c – Female Anopheles mosquito
Identify the correctly matched pair(s): 1. Malaria : Mycobacterium 2. Tuberculosis : Plasmodium. Choose the correct option:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Neither 1 nor 2
D) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The question tests knowledge of pathogens and the diseases they cause. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, while tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Correctly matching diseases with their causative Organisms ensures proper diagnosis and treatment. Misidentification can lead to ineffective therapy. Overall, understanding which microorganisms cause specific diseases is fundamental to microbiology and public health.
Option c – Neither 1 nor 2
Which illness is transmitted through the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, leading to irregular fever, weight loss, and an enlarged spleen and liver?
A) Visceral leishmaniasis
B) Japanese encephalitis
C) Diarrhoea
D) Anaplasmosis
Explanation: This disease is caused by a protozoan parasite transmitted through sandfly bites. Understanding the vector and clinical symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. The parasite affects internal organs such as the liver and spleen, causing systemic illness. Vector control and timely medical intervention are essential to reduce morbidity. Overall, vector-borne protozoan infections can severely impact internal organs if untreated.
Option a – Visceral leishmaniasis
Which disease is considered a prime candidate for worldwide elimination?
A) Polio
B) Tuberculosis
C) Measles
D) Malaria
Explanation: Some diseases are suitable for eradication due to their predictable transmission, effective vaccines, and absence of Animal reservoirs. Identifying such diseases helps focus global health resources on vaccination campaigns and surveillance. Past successes, like smallpox, demonstrate that coordinated international efforts can eliminate highly contagious infections. Overall, certain diseases can be targeted for eradication with vaccines and effective public health strategies.
Option a – Polio
Excessive cadmium accumulation in the body can lead to which disorder?
A) Minamata
B) Anaemia
C) Itai-itai
D) Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation: Cadmium is a toxic heavy metal that, when accumulated, primarily affects bones and kidneys. Chronic exposure can cause skeletal damage and renal dysfunction. Recognizing environmental and occupational exposure sources is important for prevention. Toxicological studies guide safety standards for cadmium in Food, water, and industry. Overall, cadmium toxicity results in severe skeletal and renal disorders.
Option c – Itai-itai
Which type of surveillance is designed to find unreported disease cases?
A) Passive surveillance
B) Overt surveillance
C) Sentinel surveillance
D) Active surveillance
Explanation: Active surveillance involves proactively seeking out unreported cases of diseases to get accurate data on prevalence and incidence. Unlike passive surveillance, which relies on routine reporting, active methods help identify hidden outbreaks and inform public health interventions. It is resource-intensive but provides a more complete picture of disease burden. Overall, active surveillance uncovers cases that might otherwise go undetected.
Option c – Sentinel surveillance
Sleeping sickness is a vector-borne disease caused by which organism?
A) Trypanosoma brucei
B) Balantioides coli
C) Giardia duodenalis
D) Cyclospora cayetanensis
Explanation: Sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma brucei, a protozoan parasite transmitted through tsetse fly bites. The disease affects the nervous system, causing sleep disturbances, neurological symptoms, and potentially death if untreated. Understanding the vector and pathogen Biology is critical for prevention and treatment. Overall, this disease demonstrates how vector-borne protozoan infections can severely affect humans.
Option a – Trypanosoma brucei
Which hereditary blood disorder affects the haemoglobin gene and leads to reduced red blood cell production?
A) Somatostatinoma
B) Thalassemia
C) Venous Thromboembolism
D) Polycythemia vera
Explanation: Certain genetic disorders involve mutations in haemoglobin genes, leading to abnormal structure or production of red blood cells. These mutations result in anemia, fatigue, and other complications. Understanding the genetic basis allows for diagnostic testing, genetic counseling, and targeted treatments. Overall, hemoglobin gene mutations impair oxygen Transport and red blood cell production.
Option b – Thalassemia
Which Vitamin D derivative is prescribed for hypoparathyroidism, persistent rickets, and familial hypophosphatemia?
A) Tacalcitol
B) Tocopherol
C) Ergocalciferol
D) Retinol
Explanation: Vitamin D derivatives are used therapeutically to correct calcium and phosphate imbalances in specific conditions. They enhance intestinal absorption of Minerals and support bone mineralization. Prescribing the appropriate derivative requires understanding the metabolic pathway and the patient’s condition. Overall, targeted vitamin D analogs treat deficiencies and genetic mineral metabolism disorders.
Option c – Ergocalciferol
Which statement regarding sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is correct? Statement A: STIs are spread through sexual contact from an infected person to an uninfected person. Statement B: HIV, HPV, and Hepatitis B viruses can cause STIs.
A) Both statements A and B are incorrect
B) Only statement B is correct
C) Both statements A and B are correct
D) Only statement A is correct
Explanation: STIs are infections primarily transmitted through sexual activity. Both bacterial and viral pathogens can cause these infections. Awareness of causative agents, transmission routes, and preventive measures, such as condoms and vaccines, is crucial for reducing incidence. Overall, correct knowledge of STI transmission and causative agents is key for prevention and public health.
Option c – Both statements A and B are correct
Which statement about Kwashiorkor is true? Statement A: Kwashiorkor results from a lack of fat in the diet. Statement B: Children with Kwashiorkor may remain stunted and not grow properly.
A) Only statement B is correct
B) Both statements A and B are correct
C) Both statements A and B are incorrect
D) Only statement A is correct
Explanation: Kwashiorkor is a severe malnutrition disorder caused primarily by protein deficiency. Children may experience edema, stunted growth, and other complications. Recognizing the nutritional cause helps in treatment planning with adequate protein supplementation and overall dietary rehabilitation. Overall, Kwashiorkor is linked to protein deficiency and impaired growth.
Option a – Only statement B is correct
Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
A) Cushing’s syndrome – Cortisol
B) Diabetes – Insulin
C) Goitre – Thyroxine
D) Acromegaly – Adrenaline
Explanation: Certain diseases are associated with specific hormones or biochemical markers. Correctly matching diseases with their physiological markers ensures accurate understanding of pathology. Misidentification can lead to diagnostic errors or inappropriate treatment. Overall, knowledge of disease-marker associations is essential for clinical diagnosis and management.
Option d – Acromegaly – Adrenaline
Which condition is caused by excessive iron deposition in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow?
A) Paraesthesia
B) Hemosiderosis
C) Dermatitis
D) Ariboflavinosis
Explanation: Excess iron accumulation occurs due to genetic disorders or repeated transfusions. Iron overload can damage organs like the liver, spleen, and bone marrow, leading to systemic complications. Recognizing iron deposition early allows interventions like chelation therapy to prevent organ failure. Overall, iron toxicity results in multi-organ damage requiring medical management.
Option b – Hemosiderosis
A deficiency of which vitamin leads to Xerophthalmia?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Explanation: Xerophthalmia is an eye disorder caused by insufficient vitamin intake, leading to dryness, night blindness, and corneal damage. Vitamin deficiencies disrupt normal epithelial and ocular cell function. Early supplementation can prevent vision loss and other complications. Overall, specific vitamin deficiencies directly affect eye health and vision.
Option a – Vitamin A
Which organ is mainly affected by pneumonia?
A) Kidneys
B) Urinary bladder
C) Heart
D) Lungs
Explanation: Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. It inflames air sacs, causing Fluid accumulation, cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Understanding organ involvement helps in diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring complications like hypoxia. Overall, pneumonia primarily impacts the lungs and respiratory function.
Option d – Lungs
Which one of these is NOT a bacterial disease?
A) Typhoid
B) Cholera
C) Plague
D) Rabies
Explanation: Diseases can be caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other pathogens. Differentiating bacterial diseases from viral infections is important because bacterial illnesses respond to antibiotics, whereas viral infections do not. Accurate identification guides appropriate treatment and public health measures. Overall, knowing the pathogen type ensures proper disease management.
Option d – Rabies
Which of these is NOT a communicable disease?
A) Common cold
B) Chickenpox
C) Tuberculosis
D) Diabetes
Explanation: Communicable diseases are spread from person to person or via Vectors. Non-communicable diseases, such as metabolic or genetic disorders, are not transmitted between individuals. Understanding this distinction helps in prevention, public health planning, and risk awareness. Overall, identifying whether a disease is communicable informs control strategies.
Explanation: Pathogens are microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa that can infect hosts and cause disease. Differentiating pathogens from harmless microbes is key to disease prevention, treatment, and epidemiology. Knowledge of pathogens underpins microbiology and infectious disease management. Overall, disease-causing Organisms are termed pathogens.
Option b – Pathogens
Which disease is NOT spread by mosquito bites?
A) Dengue
B) Elephantiasis
C) Malaria
D) Hepatitis
Explanation: Some diseases rely on mosquitoes as Vectors, while others are transmitted through other means such as direct contact or contaminated Food and water. Understanding vector-borne versus non-vector-borne diseases informs preventive measures like insect control and sanitation. Overall, identifying transmission routes is crucial for disease prevention.
Option d – Hepatitis
Chikungunya is transmitted by which type of mosquito?
A) Culex
B) Mansonia
C) Aedes
D) Anopheles
Explanation: Chikungunya is caused by a virus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, primarily Aedes aegypti. Knowing the vector species helps in designing mosquito control strategies and personal protection measures, such as eliminating breeding sites. Vector identification is key to reducing infection risk. Overall, Aedes mosquitoes are responsible for Chikungunya transmission.
Option c – Aedes
Which of the following is classified as a bacterial disease?
A) Rabies
B) Leprosy
C) Malaria
D) Ebola
Explanation: Bacterial diseases result from microorganisms that multiply independently and release toxins affecting the host. Recognizing which illnesses are bacterial guides appropriate treatment with antibiotics and distinguishes them from viral or parasitic infections. Overall, bacterial classification aids in proper therapeutic intervention.
Option b – Leprosy
Which disease-duration pairing is correct? I. Acute – long duration II. Chronic – short duration
A) Only II
B) Neither I nor II
C) Only I
D) Both I and II
Explanation: Diseases are classified based on their duration and progression. Acute illnesses appear suddenly and last a short time, while chronic conditions develop slowly and persist long-term. Understanding this distinction helps in treatment planning and predicting prognosis. Overall, correct categorization of disease duration guides clinical management and patient care.
Option b – Neither I nor II
Which of these is caused by a virus?
A) Chickenpox
B) Tuberculosis
C) Whooping cough
D) Malaria
Explanation: Viral infections occur when a virus enters host cells and hijacks cellular machinery to replicate. Unlike bacteria, viruses require living cells to multiply. Identifying viral diseases is important because antibiotics are ineffective, and vaccines or antiviral drugs are typically needed. Overall, viral pathogens cause a range of diseases that require specialized preventive or therapeutic approaches.
Option a – Chickenpox
In adults, which condition meaning “soft bones” can arise from vitamin D deficiency, inadequate sunlight, or certain kidney/digestive disorders?
A) Osteopenia
B) Osteomyelitis
C) Osteomalacia
D) Osteoporosis
Explanation: Softening of bones in adults occurs when calcium and phosphate metabolism is impaired, often due to vitamin D deficiency or insufficient sunlight exposure. Kidney or digestive disorders can also reduce mineral absorption, weakening bones. Correcting deficiencies through diet, supplements, or lifestyle changes improves skeletal strength. Overall, bone-softening conditions reflect impaired mineralization and vitamin D deficiency.
Option c – Osteomalacia
Which disease results from a lack of iodine in the diet?
A) Anaemia
B) Malaria
C) Chicken pox
D) Goitre
Explanation: Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production. Deficiency leads to impaired thyroid function, causing goitre and other metabolic issues. Recognizing dietary causes helps in preventive public health strategies such as iodized Salt programs. Overall, insufficient iodine disrupts thyroid function and metabolic regulation.
Option d – Goitre
Excess cadmium buildup in the body primarily harms which organ?
A) Hands and feet
B) Eyes
C) Stomach
D) Liver and kidneys
Explanation: Cadmium is a toxic metal that accumulates in organs like the liver and kidneys, causing damage to tissues and impairing their functions. Chronic exposure through Food, water, or occupational sources is harmful. Monitoring and limiting exposure is critical for health. Overall, cadmium toxicity predominantly affects the liver and kidneys.
Option d – Liver and kidneys
A deficiency of Vitamin C mainly causes which disease?
A) Pellagra
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Goitre
D) Scurvy
Explanation: Vitamin C is crucial for collagen synthesis, tissue repair, and immune function. Its deficiency impairs connective tissue integrity, leading to symptoms such as bleeding gums, bruising, and poor wound healing. Early supplementation can reverse symptoms and prevent complications. Overall, insufficient vitamin C disrupts collagen formation and connective tissue health.
Option d – Scurvy
Which condition occurs when the body cannot regulate blood sugar effectively?
A) Asthma
B) Diabetes
C) Hypertension
D) Arthritis
Explanation: Impaired blood sugar regulation arises when insulin production or response is abnormal. This leads to chronic hyperglycemia and metabolic complications affecting multiple organ systems. Understanding the underlying cause is essential for treatment through diet, medication, or lifestyle interventions. Overall, ineffective blood sugar regulation defines metabolic disorders like diabetes.
Option b – Diabetes
Lack of Vitamin D can cause bone pain, weak bones, stunted growth, and skeletal deformities. What is this condition known as?
A) Rickets
B) Pertussis
C) Dementia
D) Polio
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency affects calcium and phosphate balance, impairing bone mineralization. In children, this results in skeletal deformities and stunted growth, while adults develop weak, brittle bones. Supplementation and sun exposure are key preventive measures. Overall, insufficient vitamin D disrupts bone strength and growth.
Option a – Rickets
Who, along with Barry Marshall, received the 2005 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for proving that bacteria cause stomach ulcers?
A) Jean Paul Vuillemin
B) Robert Koch
C) Gabriel Pouchet
D) Robin Warren
Explanation: Research on stomach ulcers demonstrated that Helicobacter pylori bacteria are responsible for gastritis and peptic ulcers, challenging the idea that ulcers were purely stress-related. This discovery revolutionized treatment through antibiotics. Overall, identifying bacterial causes transformed ulcer management and Nobel recognition highlighted the breakthrough.
Option d – Robin Warren
Which of the following is classified as a heart-related disorder? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Acromegaly
B) Diabetes
C) Goitre
D) Angina
Explanation: Heart-related disorders involve structural or functional impairments of the cardiovascular system. Correct identification helps in targeted treatment, monitoring, and lifestyle interventions to prevent complications. Understanding the distinction between heart disorders and other systemic diseases is essential for clinical management. Overall, recognizing heart-specific conditions aids diagnosis and therapy.
Option d – Angina
Which bacterial infection most commonly targets the lungs? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Tuberculosis
B) Meningitis
C) Herpes
D) Influenza
Explanation: Certain bacterial infections preferentially infect the respiratory system, particularly the lungs, causing pneumonia or tuberculosis. Knowledge of the causative bacteria informs appropriate antibiotic therapy and infection control measures. Accurate diagnosis is crucial to prevent complications and transmission. Overall, lung-targeting bacterial infections require specific identification for effective treatment.
Option a – Tuberculosis
Which of the following is NOT caused by a genetic mutation? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Down syndrome
B) Sickle cell anaemia
C) Malaria
D) Phenylketonuria
Explanation: Genetic mutations alter DNA sequences, leading to inherited disorders or congenital conditions. Some diseases, like malaria, are caused by external infectious agents rather than gene defects. Distinguishing genetic from non-genetic diseases is important for diagnosis, counseling, and treatment strategies. Overall, understanding the origin of a disease guides proper medical management.
Option c – Malaria
Which illness is transmitted through consumption of contaminated Food or beverages? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Tuberculosis
B) Chicken pox
C) Malaria
D) Cholera
Explanation: Foodborne illnesses occur when pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites contaminate Food or drinks. Symptoms often include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration. Identifying transmission routes informs public health measures, including sanitation, hygiene, and proper cooking. Overall, contaminated Food or water is a common source of infectious disease.
Option d – Cholera
Which rare hereditary disorder affects the pigmentation of the skin, hair, and eyes? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Angelman syndrome
B) Alkaptonuria
C) Alagille syndrome
D) Albinism
Explanation: Certain genetic disorders impair melanin production, leading to altered pigmentation in skin, hair, and eyes. Such conditions are inherited and can affect vision and skin protection against UV Light. Understanding the genetic basis allows for counseling and management of associated health risks. Overall, pigmentation disorders arise from rare hereditary mutations affecting melanin synthesis.
Option d – Albinism
Which plant is traditionally used to treat coughs and colds? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Arjun
B) Babool
C) Jamun
D) Tulsi
Explanation: Many medicinal plants have bioactive compounds that alleviate symptoms of respiratory infections. Traditional use involves leaves, extracts, or teas that provide mild antiviral, antibacterial, or anti-inflammatory effects. Recognizing these plants highlights the role of herbal medicine in preventive and supportive care. Overall, certain plants are historically used to relieve coughs and colds.
Option d – Tulsi
What is the name of the electrolyte imbalance caused by abnormally low sodium levels in the blood? ( mcq on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Electrolyte imbalances disrupt cellular function and Fluid balance. Low sodium levels, or hyponatremia, can result from excessive Fluid intake, kidney issues, or hormonal disorders. Symptoms may include confusion, seizures, and muscle weakness. Recognizing the imbalance allows prompt medical intervention. Overall, proper sodium regulation is critical for homeostasis and neurological function.
Option b – Hyponatremia
Which group of diseases is entirely bacterial in origin? ( MCQ on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Influenza, Dengue, Cholera
B) Malaria, Common cold, Influenza
C) Dengue, Malaria, Cholera
D) Typhoid, Cholera, Tuberculosis
Explanation: Some illnesses are caused exclusively by bacteria, which can multiply independently and release toxins. Identifying bacterial-only diseases ensures appropriate antibiotic use and distinguishes them from viral or parasitic infections. Public health interventions also depend on correct identification of pathogen types. Overall, recognizing bacterial disease groups informs treatment and control measures.
Option d – Typhoid, Cholera, Tuberculosis
Which serious and highly contagious bacterial infection primarily affects the mucous membranes of the nose and throat? ( MCQ on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Shigellosis
B) Chlamydia
C) Meningococcal
D) Diphtheria
Explanation: Certain bacterial infections target mucous membranes, producing toxins and inflammation that can rapidly spread to others. Recognizing affected tissues helps in early diagnosis, isolation, and treatment to prevent complications and outbreaks. Overall, mucosal-targeting bacteria can cause severe and contagious illnesses.
Option d – Diphtheria
Which condition, also known as icterus, causes yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes? ( MCQ on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Pemphigus
B) Eczema
C) Ichthyosis
D) Jaundice
Explanation: Jaundice results from elevated bilirubin levels due to liver dysfunction, bile duct obstruction, or hemolysis. The accumulation of this pigment imparts yellow coloration to the skin and sclera. Understanding the underlying cause guides diagnosis and treatment. Overall, icterus reflects bilirubin buildup affecting skin and eyes.
Option d – Jaundice
Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by which of the following? i) An abnormally heavy body weight ii) An intense fear of gaining weight iii) A distorted perception of body weight iv) Excessive exercise to lose weight
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) iii and iv
D) ii and iv
Explanation: Anorexia Nervosa involves psychological and behavioral components leading to severe Food restriction and distorted body image. Individuals may overexercise or fear weight gain despite being underweight. Early recognition is essential for nutritional rehabilitation, therapy, and prevention of long-term health consequences. Overall, the disorder combines fear, body image distortion, and compulsive behaviors affecting Nutrition.
Option c – iii and iv
Which virus is the primary cause of the common cold? ( MCQ on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Rhinovirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Influenza
D) Coronavirus
Explanation: The common cold is caused mainly by rhinoviruses, which infect the upper respiratory tract. They are highly contagious and transmitted via droplets or contact. Symptoms include nasal congestion, sneezing, and sore throat. Identifying the causative virus helps in preventive measures and symptom management, even though specific antiviral treatment is generally not required. Overall, rhinovirus is the main agent behind the common cold.
Option a – Rhinovirus
Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of which nutrient? ( MCQ on Infectious Diseases with Answers )
A) Iodine
B) Riboflavin
C) Vitamin E
D) Niacin
Explanation: Pellagra arises due to insufficient intake of niacin (vitamin B3) or its precursor tryptophan. Deficiency affects energy metabolism and enzyme function, leading to symptoms such as dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Understanding the nutritional cause allows dietary correction and supplementation. Overall, niacin deficiency disrupts metabolic processes and manifests in characteristic clinical signs.
Option d – Niacin
We covered all the MCQ on Infectious Diseases with Answers above in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
My name is Vamshi Krishna and I am from Kamareddy, a district in Telangana. I am a graduate and by profession, I am an android app developer and also interested in blogging.